What interpersonal skill is necessary for a company officer to accomplish incident priorities?

The best method for handling the chronic complainer is to:

A. Arrange tasks that will provide a reasonable chance of success and high visibility.
B. Just ignore him and hope he will change.
C. Transfer him.
D. Discipline him.

A. Arrange tasks that will provide a reasonable chance of success and high visibility.

At a fire you order one of your firefighters to get a ladder and ventilate the roof. On his way to do this assignment one of your superior officers stopped the firefighter and gives him different orders that he follows. What would be the best solution to this problem:

A. You should discuss the problem with your superior officer that gave him the orders.
B. You should consider this a personal problem.
C. The firefighter needs more training.
D. You should discipline the firefighter.

A. You should discuss the problem with your superior officer that gave him the orders.

Which of the following could be held liable in a "tort" action:

A. A government agency but not an individual employee.
B. An individual employee but not a government agency.
C. Both an individual employee and a government agency.
D. Neither an individual employee nor a government agency.

C. Both an individual employee and a government agency.

1. _____ a management principle that states that each subordinate must have only one supervisor.

2. _____ is the pathway of responsibility from the top of the organization to the bottom and vice versa.

3. _____ is the number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise. This principle applies equally to supervising the crew of a single company or the officers of several companies under the direction of an incident commander.

1. Unity of command

2. Chain of command

3. Span of control

Span of Control:

A a rule of thumb for the fire service is that an officer can effectively direct or supervise ___ - ___ individuals, with the optimum number being ___ individuals.

3 - 7 individuals

5 individuals being optimum

When firefighters are assigned to a new or different company, they may need help in learning the methods by which the crew operates. The company officer should open clear lines of communication from the beginning of the relationship to ensure proper and complete transfer of information to the new member. Which of the following would be a good way to open this relationship:

A. A one on one conversation with other members of the company.
B. The new member sharing expectations with the company.
C. Let the new member learn by observation.
D. A one on one conversation between the company officer and the new member.

D. A one on one conversation between the company officer and the new member.

As a general rule, when authority is delegated and excepted earnestly, mistakes made by the subordinates should be considered as subjects for _____ .

A. Disciple.
B. Training rather than discipline.
C. Suspension.
D. Termination.

B. Training rather than discipline.

An indicator of high power needs for firefighters would be which of the following.

A. Sticks with a task until completion.
B. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.
C. Enjoys challenges.
D. Tries hard to be friendly and to make friends.

B. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.

If the type of building construction is not clear, it usually is easier to determine the type of building construction from; the exception is:

A. In an attic.
B. In an unfinished basement.
C. On the sidewalk in front of the house.
D. While on the roof.

C. On the sidewalk in front of the house. [False statement]

Highwinds, a major factor in several fires throughout history should remind fire officers to consider master stream appliances for exposure protection as an initial priority and to use:

A. Fog nozzles instead of smoothbore tips.
B. Smoothbore tips instead of fog nozzles.
C. Neither smoothbore tips nor fog nozzles.
D. Both smoothbore tips and fog nozzles.

B. Smoothbore tips instead of fog nozzles.

It is important for the officer to realize that the ability to positively influence the group is not dependent upon holding the informal leadership role. Generally, any role within the group can be used to help guide the group, and learn to use the influence of that role: The most detrimental action the officer can take is to:

A. Stay with the informal group.
B. Join the formal group.
C. Separate from the informal group.
D. Stay with the formal group.

C. Separate from the informal group.

People tend to pursue actions for which they received positive strokes. They tend to avoid actions for which they receive negative strokes. If no strokes are given by the company officer, individual members of the company can be expected to:

A. Be grateful that they have been left alone.
B. At least seek a negative stroke.
C. Behave in a manner that will only produce positive strokes.
D. Complain to the company officer.

B. At least seek a negative stroke.

_____ power is one's perception that they have power because of a relationship with someone who does have power. For example, a company officer may be a neighbor of the mayor. The Fire Chief and others may perceive the company officer has power in the form of influence because of his relationship.

A. Personal power.
B. Knowledge power.
C. Legitimate power.
D. Information power.

A. Personal power aka Referent power.

[Other forms of "Identification Power"]

_____ power is based on the perception that a person or group controls information that is needed to perform a duty or activity.

A. Personal power.
B. Referent power.
C. Identification Power.
D. Information power.

D. Information power or Knowledge power.

[Other forms of Expert Power]

_____ is another term derived because of the organizational structure of the department/organization.

A. Personal power.
B. Knowledge power.
C. Position Power.
D. Referent power.

C. Position Power or Organizational Authority.

[Other terms for Legitimate power]

Early in life, individuals realize that they belong to various groups. These groups, from an individual's perspective, are "in-groups". Unfortunately, many people seem to comprehend their in-group memberships largely in terms of the differences, real and imagined from members of out-groups. The action of thinking of themselves as distinctly different from out-group members often results in the rejection of out-groups. This rejection is expressed in the form of… The exception is:

A. Verbal rejection.
B. Physical avoidance.
C. Physical confrontation.
D. Discrimination.

C. Physical confrontation. [False]

Basic Leadership Style:

_____ -The leader leaves employees to make all the decisions and does not supervise them at all. This style is appropriate for routine station or community tasks. However, if it is the dominant leadership style, it can result in the loss of respect from followers and has the potential for a challenge from a strong informal leader. It should never be used at emergency incidents.

A. Democratic.
B. Autocratic.
C. Laissez-faire.
D. Two-Dimensional.
E. Contingency Leadership Theory.

C. Laissez-faire.

[In French, it literally means "to allow to do".]

_____ Leadership Style is represented by a four-quadrant chart that compares the degree of job structure to the degree of employee consideration [also referred to as job-centered and employee-centered]. Depending on the amount of emphasis placed on getting the job done through an autocratic approach or allowing employees full authority [as in the laissez-faire approach], this type of leadership style can be plotted on a graph. Graph measures concern for people over concern for task and plotted on the four quadrants: participating, delegating, telling, selling.

A. Democratic.
B. Autocratic.
C. Laissez-faire.
D. Two-Dimensional.
E. Contingency Leadership Theory.

D. Two-Dimensional Leadership Style.

_____ Leadership Theory is based on the belief that there is no single best leadership style. Application of this theory requires that the situation be matched to the leadership style.
Factors that affect the success or failure of particular leadership style include answers to the following questions:
-How good is the relationship between the leader in the subordinates?
-Is the task structured or unstructured?
-Is the leader working from a position of strong or weak power?

A. Democratic.
B. Autocratic.
C. Laissez-faire.
D. Two-Dimensional.
E. Contingency.

E. Contingency Leadership Theory.

Situational Leadership Theories [3]:

_____ - Is used to determine what leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should supply to a situation. Leaders that embrace empowerment move along a continuum from one extreme to another, using the most effective and efficient leadership style based on the specific situation.

A. Leadership-Continuum Theory.
B. Path-Goal Theory.
C. Results-Based Leadership Theory.
D. Principle-Centered Leadership.

A. Leadership-Continuum Theory.

Situational Leadership Theories [3]:

_____ - Explains that leadership ability should not be judged by personal traits alone but by the results those traits have on the success of the organization.

A. Leadership-Continuum Theory.
B. Path-Goal Theory.
C. Results-Based Leadership Theory.
D. Principle-Centered Leadership.

C. Results-Based Leadership Theory.

_____ - Focuses on the use of basic values or principles to lead an organization. It suggests that there are certain core ethical values on which individuals base decisions and live their lives.
Focuses on value driven leadership and proactively living one's own life versus enduring a reactive life.

A. Leadership-Continuum Theory.
B. Path-Goal Theory.
C. Results-Based Leadership Theory.
D. Principle-Centered Leadership.

D. Principle-Centered Leadership.

The major problem encountered with Theory Z management is:

A. More concerned with production or the results than people.
B. More concerned with people than production or results.
C. A resistance to change.
D. Fail to except when applied to specific individuals.

C. A resistance to change.

During a fire the officer should check the walls to see if there are any metal stars on the walls. These metal stars mean which of the following:

A. They are ornamental to decorate the wall.
B. That the wall can fail at moderate temperatures when the rods and cables between the stars fail.
C. The rods between the stars can fail from high temperatures.
D. The stars mean that it is a fire resistive building.

B. That the wall can fail at moderate temperatures when the rods and cables between the stars fail.

The category of injuries that is the least likely cause of fire ground injuries is:

A. Exposure to fire products.
B. Fell, slipped.
C. Overexertion.
D. Exposure to chemicals and radiation.

D. Exposure to chemicals and radiation.

When you are writing a report and you want to ensure that it does not contain any errors in spelling or grammar, the best way to ensure that it does not would be to:

A. Put it down for an hour and then take a second look at it.
B. Read it again immediately while it is fresh in your mind.
C. Put it aside for a week and then check it.
D. Give it to another person to proofread.

D. Give it to another person to proofread.

The grapevine has spread word that the layoffs are planned and shift changes will be necessary. In order to combat the rumors that are causing havoc in the company, the company officer should:

A. Confide in a senior member but ask him to keep it to himself.
B. Do nothing because the rumors are unfounded.
C. Published a daily or weekly bulletin.
D. Refer all inquiries to headquarters.

C. Published a daily or weekly bulletin.

If, as a officer, you had a poorly motivated firefighter, what would be the best way to build his moral:

A. Team him with firefighters who seem to consistently do good work.
B. Transfer him to another job.
C. Give him an easier job.
D. Give him a tougher job.

A. Team him with firefighters who seem to consistently do good work.

Operational strategies differ from operational tactics. Which of the following would be an example of an operational strategy:

A. Confining a fire to a second-floor bedroom area.
B. Cutting a hole in the roof.
C. Placing ladders.
D. Directing master streams on exposures.

A. Confining a fire to the second-floor bedroom area. [Operational strategy]

The three overall priorities of firefighting are:

1. Life safety
2. Incident stabilization
3. Property conservation

What is Layman's decision making model:

RECEO-VS
-----------------------------------------
Rescue
Exposures
Confinement
Extinguishment
Overhaul
-
Ventilation
Salvage

Facility Survey Drawings:

Three general types of drawings used to show building information are described as follows:

1. _____ - Indicate how buildings are situated with respect to other buildings and streets in the area.

2. _____ - Show the layout of individual floors, subfloors, and roofs.

3. _____ - Show side views of structures that depict the number of floors in buildings and grades of the surrounding ground.

1. Plot plans

2. Floor plans

3. Elevations

An indicator of high affiliation needs would be:

A. Strives to accept responsibility.
B. Enjoys group projects.
C. Likes to be in charge.
D. Enjoys challenges.

B. Enjoys group projects.

Problem solving involves an 8 step process. If the officer determines that corrective action is necessary, he should go back to:

A. Step 1 - Recognize the problem.
B. Step 2 - Collect data.
C. Step 3 - Analyze the data.
D. Step 4 - Develop alternatives.

B. Step 2 - Collect data.

Noted fire service author David Gratz has listed several methods company officers can use to justify their preliminary budgets. The exception is:

A. Let officials know how spending funds in a certain program now will bring savings in the future.
B. Use what has happened in the past to justify more spending in a problem area.
C. Compare the company's operations and situation with those of other companies or divisions in the fire department.
D. Inflating costs in one program so that the company officer can later transfer the excess to another program that have a less of a chance of being approved at the desired level.

D. Inflating costs in one program so that the company officer can later transfer the excess to another program that have a less of a chance of being approved at the desired level.

There are four basic leadership styles. A leadership style that is characterized by low concern for production and a low concern for people would be which of the following:

A. Dual issue leadership.
B. Middle of the road leadership.
C. Single issue leadership.
D. Bureaucratic leadership.

D. Bureaucratic leadership.

There are many symptoms that indicate a firefighter may be suffering from critical incident stress at the scene. An example of one of these symptoms would be… The exception is:

A. Anger. C. Frustration.
B. Anxiety. D. Feelings of guilt.

D. Feelings of guilt. [This would be a symptom that would happen after the incident]

To ensure conciseness, the company officer must learn to plan communications. This can be done by planning the message. The officer should:

A. Let firefighters interpret the message themselves.
B. Direct messages to individuals -not companies.
C. Make messages task oriented.
D. Give options from messages.

C. Make messages task oriented.

At an emergency incident scene, there is no time for company officers to stop and think about the correct method for communicating by radio. Therefore, they must follow effective and accepted communication protocols in day-to-day operations so that these skills will become second nature.

In radio communications - Conciseness, Clarity, Confidence, Control, and Capability are know as:

The Five C's of Radio Communication

The Five C's of Radio Communication:

1. Company officers must show _____ when using communication equipment, especially during emergency operations. Company officers can communicate _____ by using a calm, natural tone and speaking at a controlled rate.

2. This is also known as ____ ____.

A. Conciseness.
B. Clarity.
C. Confidence.
D. Control.
E. Capability.
F. Command Presence.

C. Confidence.

F. Command presence.

Organizational Structure:

Fire and emergency services personnel are separated into two distinct groups:
[1] _____ are those who deliver services to the public or external customers; typical functions include fire suppression, emergency medical services, inspections, education, and investigations.
[2] _____ are those who provide support to the line personnel or internal customers; typical functions are training, logistics, and personal administration.

A. Line personnel.
B. Staff personnel.
C. Centralized authority.
D. Decentralized authority.

1] A. Line personnel.
2] B. Staff personnel.

What are the two types of authority?

Centralized and Decentralized

_____ - Decisions are made by one person at the top of the structure. _____ works well in very small organizations such as an individual fire company, but in large organizations the leader's span of control may be exceeded unless decision-making authority is delegated.

A. Line personnel.
B. Staff personnel.
C. Centralized authority.
D. Decentralized authority.

C. Centralized authority.

_____ - Decisions are allowed to be made at a lower level [basically delegation of authority], with the effects of the decisions reported through the structure. For this authority to work effectively, the Fire Chief or CEO must ensure that all members understand the direction, values, and goals of the organization.

A. Line personnel.
B. Staff personnel.
C. Centralized authority.
D. Decentralized authority.

D. Decentralized authority.

_____ is when personnel are signed by their supervisor to perform duties that fall under the authority of another supervisor. While performing those duties, the subordinates are allowed to report to the second supervisor on matters relating to that function.

A. Scalar structure.
B. Flat organizational structure.
C. Functional supervision.
D. Division of labor.

C. Functional supervision.

Organizational Structure:

_____ consists of one person with all the authority supervising the group on a one to one basis.

A. Scalar structure.
B. Flat organizational structure.
C. Functional supervision.
D. Division of labor.

B. Flat organizational structure.

The official leader of the fire company [formal group] is not necessarily the informal leader. It is desirable when the company officer is the leader in both the formal and informal groups, but this is not always the case. If this is the case how should the company officer respond in this situation:

A. Get rid of the group completely and start over.
B. Eliminate the leader of the group.
C. Accept his role and learn to deal within the group in both roles.
D. Separate totally from the informal group.

C. Accept his role and learn to deal within the group in both roles.

When a firefighter first enters the fire service, their attitudes are chiefly influenced by the _____ :

A. Chief of the department.
B. Company officer to whom they are assigned.
C. Union official.
D. Training officer.

B. Company officer to whom they are assigned.

John has been a difficult employee, as the company officer, you decide to team John together with Paul, a member who has consistently done good work. The likely outcome of this partnership is it:

A. Usually helps John only.
B. Usually helps Paul only.
C. Usually helps both John and Paul.
D. Usually helps neither John nor Paul.

C. Usually helps BOTH John and Paul.

When handling complaints, to separate the problem from the feelings officers must know why people complain. When the session begins, the officer should be a listener. The officer should help the individual see the difference, using open ended and reflective questions. An example of a reflective question is:

A. You really like this shift, but there are some guys who bother you?
B. You really like this shift, but there are some guys who bother you? How do they bother you?
C. Do you really like this shift?
D. Do some of the guys bother you?

A. You really like this shift, but there are some guys who bother you?

Most individuals will have complaints from time to time, a natural result of people working together. However there are certain individuals who chronically complain. Of the following choices, the one which should NOT be used to handle the chronic complainer is:

A. Send him to the chief.
B. Arrange tasks that will provide a reasonable chance of success.
C. Advise him to seek professional psychiatric help.
D. Ignore him, he'll get over it.

D. Ignore him, he'll get over it.

Operational strategies and tactics are interrelated. Of the following examples, which one is an operational strategy [opposed to tactics].

A. Confine the fire to the kitchen area.
B. Advance a headline to the second floor.
C. Directing master streams on exposures.
D. Ladder the side of a building.

A. Confine the fire to the kitchen area.

Weather will have many effects on incident operations. The company officer must ask 3 basic questions when sizing up the weather; exception is:

A. How will weather affect the ability of the firefighters to function?
B. How will weather affect the incident?
C. How will weather effect apparatus and other equipment?
D. How will wet weather affect the rate of burning?

D. How will wet weather affect the rate of burning?

Critical incident stress is a type of stress that deserves special attention. It occurs as a result of a particularly traumatic or disturbing incident. There are many symptoms that indicate a firefighter may be suffering from critical incident stress. Of the following symptoms, the one that would occur at the scene is:

A. Doubts of performance ability.
B. Feelings of guilt.
C. Restlessness.
D. Irritability.

A. Doubts of performance ability.

The purpose of peer support is to give a firefighter who has been exposed to a critical incident someone to talk to. Of the following characteristics of a potential peer supporter, the most important characteristic is:

A. Lieut. Jones is an easy person to talk to and well liked.
B. Firefighter Brown has the ability to follow through.
C. Firefighter Jackson has the ability to keep information confidential.
D. Enlist a variety of departmental ranks.

C. Firefighter Jackson has the ability to keep information confidential.

A tort is a civil wrong or injury. The main purpose of a tort action is to seek payment for damages to property and injuries to individuals. The following elements must exist for a valid tort action:
1.] The defendant must owe a legal duty to the plaintiff.
2.] There must be a breach of duty, that is, the defendant must have failed to perform or to properly perform that duty.
3.] The breach of duty must be a proximate cause of the accident or injury that resulted.
4.] The plaintiff must have suffered damages as a result.

The major issue in most court liability cases is:

A. Matter of duty.
B. Plaintiff has suffered damages.
C. Causation.
D. Breach of legal duty.

C. Causation.

[The question of causation is the most difficult to prove in a tort civil action case. The breach of duty must be a proximate cause of the accident or injury that resulted.]

[In-other-woods one that is a naturally continuous sequence produces the injury or damage and without which the injury or damage would not have occurred.]

It is important to note that not only can a government agency be held liable in tort, but an individual employee may also be liable. In this case, a plaintiff would have to show that the employee had performed with complete disregard for his training and the agencies:

A. Training and schedule.
B. Guidelines and policies.
C. Doctrine of immunity.
D. The common law.

B. Guidelines and policies.

Four elements must exist for a valid tort action. Of the following four elements, the one that is the major issue in most tort liability cases is:

A. The plaintiff must have suffered damages as a result.
B. The breach of duty must be a proximate cause of the incident.
C. There must be a breach of duty.
D. The defendant must owe a legal duty to the plaintiff.

B. The breach of duty must be a proximate cause of the accident.

Negligence is the failure to exercise such care as a reasonable, prudent, careful person would use under the same or similar circumstances. The essence of negligence is best represented by:

A. The adequacy of performance.
B. The dollar amount of damages.
C. The size of the incident.
D. How many injuries occurred.

A. The adequacy of performance.

Many items of information may be brought into the court to aid in establishing the prevailing standard of care. One of the strongest types of evidence will be:

A. The agency's own guidelines and policies.
B. Opinions of expert witnesses.
C. Research publications.
D. Professional journals.

A. The agency's own guidelines and policies.

An effective method of minimizing the effects of the "grapevine" is to:

A. Ignore it.
B. Have individual conversations.
C. Hold meetings.
D. Print and post a daily or weekly bulletin.

D. Print and post a daily or weekly bulletin.

An indicator of high power needs for firefighters is:

A. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.
B. Strives to accept responsibility.
C. Is status oriented.
D. Is sensitive to what others think.

A. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.

The best method for handling the chronic complainer is to:

A. Punish him.
B. Ignore him.
C. Lead by example.
D. Arrange tasks that will provide a reasonable chance of success and high visibility.

D. Arrange tasks that will provide a reasonable chance of success and high visibility.

[***Asked all the time***]

There are 4 basic organizational principles that company officers must use. They are... the exception is:

A. Unity of Command.
B. Span of control.
C. Division of labor.
D. Discipline.
E. Teamwork.

E. Teamwork. [FALSE]

1. Unity of Command
2. Span of control
3. Division of labor
4. Discipline

There are several factors that can effect the number of people who can be effectively supervised at one time [span of control], they are... the exception is:

A. Ability and experience of the company officer
B. Ability and experience of the firefighters
C. Situation under which the task is performed [nature of task]
D. Personality of the officer
E. Proximity of subordinates to the fire officer and each other
F. Consequences of a mistake

D. Personality of the officer [false]

[The rest are true]

The company officer's role in the group becomes one of meshing the goals of the formal and informal groups. The officer must learn to work within the relationships of the company. The exception is:

A. Informal groups form within all formal groups.
B. The informal group may have greater influence on the productivity and success of the formal group than does any other factor.
C. The most detrimental action the officer can take is to separate from the informal group.
D. The informal leader is also the formal leader.

D. The informal leader is also formal leader. [This is not always true]

[while desirable for the company officer to be both informal and formal leader, this isn't always the case]

The most productive leadership style to be used on the fireground is:

A. Middle-Of-The-Road Leadership
B. Dual-Issue Leadership
C. Single-issue Leadership
D. Bureaucratic Leadership

C. Single-issue Leadership

Several actions by the company officer will have positive effects in reducing a substantial number of firefighter injuries. If unsafe acts are being performed by a firefighter it indicates:

A. The need for training.
B. The need for psychiatric help.
C. If he is assigned to a truck company, transfer him to an engine company.
D. He should be sent to the fire prevention bureau.

A. The need for training.

When making field inspections of buildings a fire inspector must determine the type of building construction that the building has. An excellent place to examine the type of construction is... the exception is:

A. While on the roof.
B. While on the first floor.
C. While in the attic.
D. While in the unfinished basement.

B. While on the first floor.

The technical data provided by staff positions is then put into directives and sent directly through the chain of command. This method works well for policy matters. However, because of the bulk of information that must go down through the chain of command, it is not well suited for procedural matters. The above statement best describes the:

A. Traditional Staff Advisory Method
B. Staff Direct Implementation Method
C. Staff Direct Advice Method
D. Mutual Staff/Line Overlap Method

B. Staff Direct Implementation Method

Annual reports continually support an approximate breakdown of causes of injuries on the fireground. The major cause of injuries on the fairground is:

A. Fell, slipped.
B. Overexertion.
C. Exposure to fire products.
D. Struck by objects.

C. Exposure to fire products.

The company officer's main task during phase two of implementation are:

A. Directing but not controlling
B. Both directing and controlling
C. Controlling but not directing
D. Neither directing nor controlling

B. Both directing and controlling

[What is this question referring too?]

An order such as, "Smith, get a roof ladder and a flathead ax, then ventilate the structure by cutting a hole in the top of the roof where you see the smoke rising from the eaves."

A. Is a waste of valuable time.
B. Is an insult to a rookie firefighter.
C. If it is necessary to be that explicit, the firefighter is being ordered to perform a task beyond his or her capability.
D. Is the best way to see that the tactic is carried out.

C. If it is necessary to be that explicit, the firefighter is being ordered to perform a task beyond his or her capability.

The memorandum is usually short into the point. Of the following statements, the statement which is false is:

A. Memos transmit exactly the same information to several locations or individuals.
B. Memos typically formalize a telephone call.
C. Memos provide specific information concerning questions or results in a somewhat informal manner.
D. Memos provide a verbal record of decisions, requests, or policies.

D. Memos provide a verbal record of decisions, requests, or policies.
[False, the provide a written record]

Every day the bulk of organizational information is transmitted via the "grapevine". The single most effective method of minimizing the effects of the "grapevine" is to:

A. Print and post a daily or weekly bulletin.
B. Ignore the grapevine.
C. Filter information which is out on the grapevine.
D. Provide adequate flow of official information.

D. Provide adequate flow of official information.

***[^ This is the single most effective method, an example of using this method would be by printing and posting a daily or weekly bulletin]

1. Which of the following indicators would be exhibited by a firefighter who has high achievement needs?
&
2. Which of the following indicators would be exhibited by a firefighter who has high power need?

A. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.
B. Strives to accept responsibility.
C. Is status oriented.
D. Is sensitive to what others think.

1] B. Strives to accept responsibility.
-----------------------------------------
2] A. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.

Open-ended questions are better for gathering information. What's of the following questions are open-ended questions?
1. Joe, what do you think the problem is?
2. George, is there a fire inside?
3. Tom, what seems to be wrong with the truck?

A. Questions 1 and 2 only.
B. Questions 2 and 3 only.
C. Questions 1 and 3 only.
D. Questions 1, 2, and 3.

C. Questions 1 and 3 only.

Problem solving involves an 8 step process. If the officer determines that corrective action is necessary, he should go back to:

A. Step one – recognize the problem.
B. Step two – collect data.
C. Step three – analyze the data.
D. Step four – develop alternatives.

B. Step two - collect data.

The staff direct implementation method:

A. Is the current method of using staff personnel to route their advice through upper and middle management.
B. Works well for procedural matters.
C. Is not well-suited for policy matters.
D. Does not allow the staff positions to deal directly with the line structure to implement the decision.

A. Is the current method of using staff personnel to route their advice through upper and middle management.

The flat organization structure:

A. Works well on the fire ground.
B. Bogs down in routine work.
C. Is well suited to accomplish tasks when none of the tasks are interdependent.
D. Works well with complex tasks.

C. Is well suited to accomplish tasks when none of the tasks are interdependent.

Planning is the first step in any type of management. The manager must have a plan. Which of the following statements is true regarding planning?

A. The company officer is most likely involved in short-term planning, which typically deals specifically with assigning personnel to attain immediate goals or meet day-to-day demands.
B. Medium-range plans cover a period from 6 to 10 years.
C. Company officer typically becomes involved in long-term planning.
D. Company officer does not set goals and/or develop a plan for the company.

A. The company officer is most likely involved in short-term planning, which typically deals specifically with assigning personnel to attain immediate goals or meet day-to-day demands.

Progressive discipline: 3 steps

1st step -

2nd step -

3rd step -

1st step - Oral reprimand.

2nd step - Written reprimand.

3rd step - Discipline [Suspension/ termination]

When conducting a formal evaluation session, after explaining the purpose of the agenda, the next step in the interview is:

A. Tell the firefighter what personal behavior makes him or her asset to the organization.
B. Review the firefighter strengths and weaknesses.
C. Ask the firefighter to talk about how he or she views the work and relationships with the department.
D. Describe the changes the firefighter needs to make in his or her behavior.

B. Review the firefighter strengths and weaknesses.

1. Pre-incident _____ - Gathering information or facts about a particular structure, occupancy, or high-risk [target] hazards.

2. Pre-incident _____ - Is the entire process of gathering and evaluating information, developing procedures based on that information, and ensuring that the information remains current.

A. Survey.
B. Analysis.
C. Report
D. Planning.

1] A. Survey.

2] D. Planning.

After assessing the sequence of operational strategies, the incident commander must quickly decide whether the primary size up was correct. To make this check, the most important consideration is:

A. Life safety.
B. Fire control.
C. The timing necessary with other objectives.
D. Whether there are adequate resources on the scene to implement the operational strategies outlined.

D. Whether there are adequate resources on the scene to implement the operational strategies outlined.

There are four basic leadership styles. Leadership style that has a high degree of concern for people with a high concern for production is known as:

A. Bureaucratic leadership.
B. Single-issue leadership.
C. Middle-of-the-road leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.

D. Dual-issue leadership.

The method used to find effective solutions is called the eight-step method of problem resolution. The step where you determine; what brought the problem to the officers attention? What are the symptoms? Who is involved, and what is the standard, would be watched step in the method?

A. Recognize and define the problem.
B. Collect applicable data.
C. Analyze the problem.
D. Select the best alternative.

A. Recognize and define the problem.

The preincident survey is the fact gathering of preincident planning. The key to developing a suitable working relationship between the company officer and the tenant is respect and understanding. understanding. The following statements are FALSE… The exception is:

A. Facility surveys of public assembly occupancies should be scheduled during an event.
B. The company officer should explain the purpose of the survey when the appointment is made.
C. The preincident survey must not be scheduled near a fire enforcement inspection.
D. Facility survey must be completed in one day.

B. The company officer should explain the purpose of the survey when the appointment is made. [TRUE]
-----------------------------------------
A. Facility surveys of public assembly occupancies should be scheduled during an event. [sometimes but not always]

C. The preincident survey must not be scheduled near a fire enforcement inspection. [It would be unwise]

D. Facility survey must be completed in one day. [FALSE, no literature found that states this]

Operational strategies and tactics are interrelated. An example of operational strategy is:

A. Advancing and lines.
B. Cutting a hole in the roof.
C. Overhaul.
D. Placing ladders.

C. Overhaul.

[Operational strategy = RECEO-VS;
tactics = actions to accomplish ^ ]

When an incident occurs and the fire department is notified, the sequence moves into the operational strategy phase. When the dispatcher receives an alarm, information is collected, and the company officer is able to choose the appropriate operational strategy using the following decision-making factors… The exception is:

A. Standard operating procedures.
B. Standard fire ground priorities.
C. Information obtained by the fire department.
D. The officers inexperience.

D. The officers inexperience.

Wendhausen equal effect on both the incident and on fire department personnel. Wind can also affect the severity of an incident. The most correct statement regarding operations in windy conditions is:

A. In windy situations, cross ventilation can be less effective; therefore, more personnel will be needed for ventilation assignment.
B. Officers should consider master-stream appliances for exposure protection and use fog nozzles instead of smoothbore tips.
C. Aerial equipment should be deployed to knockdown firebrands even before the fire is ventilated for ventilate itself.
D. Precipitation does not affect the ability of firefighters to perform.

C. Aerial equipment should be deployed to knockdown firebrands even before the fire is ventilated for ventilate itself.

There are many symptoms that indicate a firefighter maybe suffering critical incident stress. Of the following symptoms, the one which occurs at the scene is:

A. Feelings of guilt.
B. Denial of the situation.
C. Restlessness.
D. Irritability.

B. Denial of the situation.

[Occurs on scene or during an incident, the other examples occur after an incident]

Based on the initial assessment of the incident scene, company officers must make decisions based on "acceptable risk". This concept is clearly stated in a decision-making model developed by the Phoenix Fire Department. The essence of the model is as follows: [4]

1. Each emergency response is begun with the assumption that "responders can protect lives and property."

2. Responders will "risk their lives a lot, if necessary, to save savable lives." [1]aka:

3. Responders will "risk their lives a little, and in a calculated manner, to save salvageable property." [2]aka:

4. Responders will NOT "risk their lives at all to save lives and property that have all ready been lost." [3]aka:

1. "Risk a lot to save a lot."

2. "Risk little to save little."

3. "Risk nothing to save nothing."

Command Activities:

The first-arriving officer has the following three optional command activities available... the exception is:

A. Nothing-showing.
B. Fast-attack.
C. Command.
D. Investigating.

D. Investigating. [FALSE]

Command Activities:

The first-arriving officer has 3 optional command activities available. The following describes:

1.] _____ - Because of the nature and/or scope of some incidents, immediate and strong overall " _____ " is needed. In these instances, the first-arriving officer should assume command by naming the incident and designating and ICP, giving the initial report on conditions, and requesting additional resources need.

Two types:

2.] _____ - Involves the company officer performing multiple tasks such as serving as an incident commander, developing the incident action plan, and performing active tasks such as advancing a hoseline.

3.] _____ - Involves the company officer remaining at the mobile radio in the apparatus, assigning tasks to unit personnel, communicating with other responding units, and expanding the NIMS – ICS as needed.

A. Nothing-showing.
B. Fast-attack.
C. Command.
D. Command Combat.
E. Formal Command.

1] C. Command.
2] D. Combat Command.
3] E. Formal Command.

Complaints are problems, but they are special because they involve someone's feelings. Ideally, the officers objective in handling complaints should be two:

A. Solve the problem using the problem solving process, then deal with the firefighters feelings the bad feelings must be resolved.
B. Solve the problem using the problem-solving process, but the officer is not responsible for the firefighters feelings.
C. Separate the feelings from the problem, and then apply the problem-solving process to the problem.
D. Resolve the firefighters bad feelings, and the underlining problems will resolve themselves.

C. Separate the feelings from the problem, and then apply the problem-solving process to the problem.

Size-up is a process of gathering and evaluating information, probabilities, and resources of a situation. It is the assessment of the incidents during specific intervals and situations. Four basic areas of information must be considered [1]Environment, [3]Nature of Incident, [4]Occupancy, and Resources. In each of these areas, the officer should strive to FIRST determine:

A. The resources needed for the situation.
B. The possibilities of the situation.
C. The probabilities of the situation.
D. The facts of the situation.

D. The facts of the situation.

The most correct statement regarding potential collapse in older buildings is:

A. Cast-iron ornamental façades often separate and fall during a fire.
B. Ornamental metal stars attached to the stairs indicate the collapse hazard of the stairway.
C. Ornamental iron doors and windows will fail quickly during a fire.
D. Missing outside attachments such as ornamental marquees may injure firefighters.

A. Cast-iron ornamental façades often separate and fall during a fire.

Many serious injuries occur on the fireground. It is estimated that 55% of all firefighter injuries occur:

A. Responding to or returning from an incident.
B. On scene of an incident.
C. During training.
D. That's nonemergency incidents.

B. On the scene of an incident.

According to Company Officer:

1.] Between 2000 and 2006 an average of ____ firefighters died while on duty.

2.] The two leading causes of death to firefighters are result of _____ and _____ resulting from physical stress.

3.] _____ is the leading cause of firefighter fatalities,

4.] while _____ or _____ that results in heart attacks or strokes is the leading cause of firefighter injury.

1.] 107

2.] motor vehicle accidents and heart attacks

3.] Cardiac arrest

4.] Overexertion or stress

The third structure of centralized authority is the circular structure. The circular structure involves a central authority interacting with the individuals of a group, and members interacting among themselves. The disadvantage of the circular structure is:

A. Involves a high level of interaction.
B. Fresh and innovative solutions are found.
C. Personal commitment of members tend to be higher because of the ability to receive feedback to provide input.
D. Used effectively as a task-implementer, but can be cumbersome for problem-solving.

D. Used effectively as a task-implementer, but can be cumbersome for problem-solving.

The national fire protection Association [NFPA] conducts annual survey of accident locations and injury types. The greatest cause of "fire ground" injuries is exposure to fire products. The next most frequent cause is:

A. Overexertion.
B. Fell, slipped.
C. Exposure to chemicals or radiation.
D. Struck by object.

B. Fell, slipped.

[Can't find "fire ground injury" in book; book sts "Overexertion" and "stress" as leading cause of firefighter "injury".]

Exposures within the building receives initial consideration, especially floors above probable fire locations. The second exposure consideration is any adjoining buildings. Which of the buildings below is a secondary exposure?

A. The building on the left of the fire building.
B. The building on the right of the fire building.
C. The building to the rear of the fire building.
D. The building across the street from the fire building.

C. The building to the rear of the fire building.

[Exam 13, Q-94 - seems strange but could very well be correct]

Stress is simply an adjustment to change. The change can be good or it can be bad. In psychology, good stress it's called eustress and bad stress is called dystress. In which of the following stages of stress will death result?

A. The alarm stage.
B. The resistance stage.
C. The fight/flight stage.
D. The exhaustion stage.

D. The exhaustion stage.

[Define all stages in flash cards when found in book]

Critical Incident Stress is the stress that occurs after a particularly traumatic or disturbing incident. There are several things the company officer can do to help alleviate the immediate reactions to a critical incident. The following statements are TRUE regarding critical incident stress... the exception is:

A. One thing would be to get the company back in service immediately.
B. The officer can make sure the company gets proper rest after the incident.
C. The officer should arrange vacation time of each of the company members.
D. The officer should provide professional counseling.

A. One thing would be to get the company back in service immediately. [False]

Company officers must develop the skills necessary to manage the responsibility of company safety. The following are all actions by the company officer that will have a positive effect in reducing a substantial number of firefighter injuries... the exception is:

A. Personal commitment by the company officer to reduce injuries.
B. Designing and conducting effective training for firefighters in the use of self-contained breathing apparatus.
C. Developing and supporting ineffective physical fitness program.
D. Making sure the firefighters wear the protective clothing 75% of the time.

D. Making sure the firefighters wear the protective clothing 75% of the time. [False]

The fire service is one of the most hazardous occupations in North America. The company officer can get a good idea whether a firefighter tends to work safely or takes unnecessary risks on the fire ground by:

A. Reviewing the firefighters training records from the fire Academy.
B. Examining the everyday work habits of the firefighter.
C. Asking the opinion of other members of the company.
D. Asking the training chief.

B. Examining the everyday work habits of the firefighter.

Clearly, the most important duty of a company officer is to:

A. Get the job done. [Meeting the organizations goals/objectives]
B. Build teamwork and cooperation.
C. Protect all members of the company from injury or illness.
D. Development members skills.

C. Protect all members of the company from injury or illness.

The statement "In most cases, what you are able to contribute to and achieve in the fire service is limited only by the degree of your personal commitment" is best associated with which of the following statements?

A. Be loyal to your department.
B. Learn your job, be sincerely interested in it, and be dedicated to it.
C. Accept criticism graciously; except praise, honors, and advancement modestly.
D. Be aggressive in the pursuit of education and training opportunities

B. Learn your job, be sincerely interested in it, and be dedicated to it.

In most of the industrialized world, the fulfillment of the first two levels of human needs are almost guaranteed by employment opportunities and social welfare programs. This is certainly true in the United States and Canada. The next level in the hierarchy is that of:

A. Safety and security.
B. Esteem and status.
C. Belonging and social activity.
D. Self-actualization and fulfillment.

C. Belonging and social activities.

[List all when found in book]

Formal communications are essential to successful discharge of the departments responsibilities to the citizens of the community. _____ provide direction on which specific actions are based. _____ are the basis for much of the company level skills training, such as initial fire attack, supporting automatic sprinkler systems, coordinated fire attack, ground search and rescue, and others.

A. Written policies and procedures.
B. Standing operating procedures.
C. Orders.
D. Directives.

B. Standing operating procedures [SOP's]

In formal groups, the leader is usually either signed or elected. In informal groups, a natural or indigenous leader emerges regardless of whether any formal selection process is used. The following statements are true regarding formal and informal leaders… The exception is:

A. It is not desirable that the company officer be the leader in both the formal and informal groups.
B. It is important for company officers to realize that the ability to positively influence a group is not dependent upon being their in formal leader.
C. The company officer must strive to become the informal leader as well as the appointed leader by earning the respect of the crew members.
D. The most detrimental thing a company officer can do is to distance himself from the informal group.

A. It is not desirable that the company officer be the leader in both the formal and informal groups. [False]

Authority refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable. There two types of authority: centralized and decentralized. The difference between centralized and decentralized authority is the level at which decisions are made. The desired result of decentralization is:

A. Decisions are made by one person at the top structure.
B. When decisions are made at lower levels in an organization, upper management personnel are freed to concentrate on more important matters.
C. The Chief may centralize the authority to make certain decisions only specific areas.
D. The chief delegates to officers authority to make decisions and to implement plans, and accountability for any decisions made.

B. When decisions are made at lower levels in an organization, upper management personnel are freed to concentrate on more important matters.

Company officers are bound by ADA employment regulations and maybe held personally liable for failure to comply with them. The following statements are true regarding reasonable accommodation may mean changing the working environment and/or the way the job is performed... the exception is:

A. Require that essential parts of the job be assigned to another worker in order to accommodate a disabled.
B. Providing work surfaces that are at wheelchair height and putting necessary switches and controls within reach of someone in a wheelchair.
C. Moving a job function to a ground-floor office if there is no elevator.
D. Rewriting the job description to eliminate nonessential functions that a disabled person could not perform.

A. Require that essential parts of the job be assigned to another worker in order to accommodate a disabled. [False]

There are five key dimensions that determine the quality of an officers leadership ability. An effective leader is one who can:

A. Structure competitive rather than cooperative relationships.
B. Resolve conflicts by avoiding or forcing a particular solution rather than confronting issues together.
C. Builds others' trust in the leader.
D. Stimulate and promote task-oriented thinking and behavior.

C. Builds others' trust in the leader.

This is one of the most effective skill development and maintenance techniques, especially for the most critical skills. Like the four-step method of instruction, _____ has been around for many years and has proven its effectiveness. However, while _____ is highly effective, it is not as effective as the four-step method because it often involves small group instruction. The _____ in the statement is best represented by:

A. Small-step learning
B. Prescriptive training
C. Traditional training
D. Mastery learning

D. Mastery learning

[Define all when found in book]

A detailed narrative should be a part of every incident report. In general, company officers should use the following guidelines when preparing the narrative portion of their reports... The exception is:

A. Include only known facts. Do include speculation.
B. Organize the narrative in chronological sequence of events.
C. Be thorough. Gather information from all company members before writing the report, and clarify any apparent conflicting information.
D. Avoid using fire service jargon, acronyms, or technical terminology that some readers may not understand.

A. Include only known facts. Do include speculation. [False]
-----------------------------------------
Do NOT include speculation.
All other answers are true.

If asked to define communications, most people might respond, "talking between two people" or "words" or some other simplistic answer. These answers are only partially correct. They fail to identify communications as a process:

A. Of a person sending the information - "the sender".
B. Of the actual message.
C. That exchanges ideas and information between two parties.
D. Of a person receiving the information - "the receiver".

C. That exchanges ideas and information between two parties.

The single most effective method of minimizing the effects of the "grapevine" is for the administration to:

A. Provide a daily or weekly information bulletin in every station.
B. Ignore the grapevine.
C. Provide an adequate flow of official information.
D. Provide a regular flow of false information.

C. Provide an adequate flow of official information.

[Providing a daily or weekly information bulletin is a way to provide adequate/official information]

While the publics perception of the fire department is influenced by what they see and hear from the various news media, the primary source of their image of the department is their:

A Listening to the Fire Chief at government meetings.
B. Observation of fire stations and department apparatus.
C. Encounters with fire apparatus on city streets.
D. Day to day contact with department personnel at fires, medical calls, rescues, inspections, and public education presentations.

A.

D. Day to day contact with department personnel at fires, medical calls, rescues, inspections, and public education presentations.

The most important duty of every firefighter is to prevent fires and other emergencies from occurring because that is the most cost-effective way of protecting life and property. The goal toward which every fire department strives is to:

A. Reduce the loss of life and property within the jurisdiction.
B. Adopt enforce appropriate ordinances, codes and standards.
C. Prevent all emergencies.
D. Conscientiously apply the inspection program at the company level.

C. Prevent all emergencies.

A department's infectious disease control program is designed to protect the health of its members, but it also helps to protect the department against related liability. One component of an infectious control program known as _____ is described as the three most effective ways of protecting firefighters from communicable diseases on the job are through "immunizations, protective barriers, and proper disposal of contaminated materials".

A. A written policy statement.
B. Exposure control plan.
C. An infectious control SOP.
D. A training / education program.

B. Exposure control plan.

The federal court system and, ultimately, the U.S. Supreme Court is the arbiter in matters of constitutional law in the U.S. The Constitution creates a federal government structure consisting of three branches:

1. Legislative branch [creates laws]

2. Executive branch [implements, administers, and enforces laws]

3. Judicial branch [interprets the laws]

1. The Legislative branch - ____ laws.

2. Executive branch - ____, ____, and ____ laws.

3. Judicial branch - ____ the laws.

1. Creates

2. Implements, administers, and enforces

3. Interprets

SOURCES of LAWS:

_____ - Is that body of law that is based on tradition, custom, usage, and decisions of the judicial courts within a particular country, society, or culture. Therefore, ____ law consists of laws that were developed by judicial decisions rather than legislative action [statutory law].

A. Common laws [aka Case law].
B. Statutory laws.
C. Administrative laws.
D. Constitutional law.

A. Common laws [aka Case law].

Four- step method of instruction:

_____ - Provide opportunities for learning through activities, exercises, discussions, workgroups, skill practice, practical training evolutions, and similar learning activities. The purpose is to reinforce the students learning.
***Most learning takes place during this step, making this step critically important.***

A. Step 1: Preparation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
C. Step 3: Application.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.

C. Step 3: Application.

[Described as the most important step]

If a reporter should ask for a prepared news or press release on a particular event or topic, it can be submitted in an outline form or it can be submitted in narrative form. Regardless of what form is being used, the content should be limited to the facts of the event or topic and should be a simple and straightforward as possible. The following statements are FALSE regarding the guidelines for a press release... the exception is:

A. Summarize the piece in the last sentence by answering the questions Who? What? When? Where? and Why?
B. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the most important facts first and the least important ones last.
C. Limit sentence length to more than 20 words.
D. Write no less than four or five lines per paragraph.

B. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the most important facts first and the least important ones last. [TRUE]
-----------------------------------------
A. Summarize the piece in the "last sentence" by answering the questions Who? What? When? Where? and Why? [FALSE - first sentence]

C. Limit sentence length to "more" than 20 words. [FALSE- less than 20 words]

D. Write no "less" than four or five lines per paragraph. [FALSE - no more than]

Although gathering information about a particular building or occupancy during a pre-incident survey is often referred to as pre-incident planning, there is a difference. When company level personnel conduct at a preincident survey, they are there to... the exception is:

A. Concentrate on where and how fires are most likely to occur and how those fires are likely to behave.
B. See that the occupant has done everything that the code requires to prevent fires from occurring and that will allow the occupants to get out if and when the fire does occur.
C. Focus on what is likely to happen and what they will need in order to mitigate those contingencies.
D. Determine what firefighters will need to know about the occupancy in order to function there safely when their vision is totally obscured by darkness and/or smoke.
E. Identify the number and type of resources needed to handle an incident at the location.
F. Identify critical conditions that were not noted during any previous facility surveys or have changed since the last survey.

B. See that the occupant has done everything that the code requires to prevent fires from occurring and that will allow the occupants to get out if and when a fire does occur.

[FALSE - this is done during inspections not pre-incident survey's]

A common means of communication is essential for maintaining control, coordination, and safety. The following statements are TRUE regarding common communications the exception is:

A. All units must use the 10-code or other agency specific radio codes.
B. Individual channels may be assigned for command, safety, tactical, support, ground-to-air, or air-to-air.
C. All unit leaders should be given a copy of the communications plan for the incident when they check in.
D. If mutual aid units are not equipped with radios that can receive and transmit on the channels assigned to them in the plan, they must be issued portable radios that will function on those channels.

A. All units must use the 10-code or other agency specific radio codes. [FALSE]

There are 5 Essential Elements of a Group. Which one is defined as draws members together by some common interest that is important to them on some level. Weather it be shared hobby's, beliefs, or needs.

A. Common Binding Interests.
B. Vital Group Image.
C. Sense of Continuity.
D. Shared set of Values.
E. Different Roles within the Group.

A. Common binding interest.

[Volunteer and combination organizations must determine, communicate, and supports the common binding interests of their members if they are to retain them.]

There are 5 Essential Elements of a Group. Which one is defined as the members of the group must recognize the existence of their group and take pride in it. This pride contributes to group spirit and high morale. This feeling of pride must extend beyond the unit to the entire and organization. In addition to being essential to the cohesion of the group, it is one of the greatest influences on the success of the group.

A. Common Binding Interests.
B. Vital Group Image.
C. Sense of Continuity.
D. Shared set of Values.
E. Different Roles within the Group.

B. Vital group image.

***it is one of the greatest influences on the success of the group***.

There are 5 Essential Elements of a Group. Which one is considered very important to group integrity. Without it commitment to the group may diminish. The group can be fragmented, and the members may begin to think and act more independently.

A. Common Binding Interests.
B. Vital Group Image.
C. Sense of Continuity.
D. Shared set of Values.
E. Different Roles within the Group.

C. Sense of continuity.

***considered very important to group integrity. ***

There are 5 Essential Elements of a Group. Which one is considered part of the cohesive structure of most groups. They are sometimes a composite of individual perception of reality, responsibility, and integrity.

A. Common Binding Interests.
B. Vital Group Image.
C. Sense of Continuity.
D. Shared set of Values.
E. Different Roles within the Group.

D. Shared set of values.
[Common values]

There are 5 Essential Elements of a Group. Which one is defined as - Within each group, different individuals act in different capacities such as company officer, formal and informal leader, and member.

A. Common Binding Interests.
B. Vital Group Image.
C. Sense of Continuity.
D. Shared set of Values.
E. Different Roles within the Group.

E. Different roles within the group.

Most fire service recruits today are significantly different than those of 20 or 30 years ago. The following statements are FALSE regarding today's fire service recruits... the exception is:

A. They generally have less work experience than their predecessors.
B. They have less formal education.
C. They are less computer literate.
D. They are less aware social issues.

A. They generally have less work experience than their predecessors. [TRUE]
-----------------------------------------
B. They have less formal education.[False they have MORE]
C. They are less computer literate.[false they have MORE]
D. They are less aware social issues. [False they have MORE]

_____ is a frequently used technique by firefighters who are preparing for promotional or certification examination. The _____ process is based upon several fundamental principles. They apply equally to skill development and skill maintenance situations, and they are very effective when used as part of a prescriptive training program.

A. Traditional training.
B. Non-traditional training.
C. Small-step learning.
D. Mastery learning.

D. Mastery learning.

[Look up all definitions if found in book, esp mastery learning]

The terms hazard and risk are often used interchangeably. Technically, however, hazards and risks described two different things. RISK is the exposure to the hazard, and a HAZARD is a condition, substance, or device that can directly cause injury or loss. Which of the following is an example of a fire-related risk:

A. Smoking materials.
B. Number of deaths per capita.
C. Faulty electrical wiring.
D. Children playing with matches.

B. Number of deaths per capita.

Usually shortened to just "memos", memoranda are a form of letter that is usually reserved for internal communication only - that is, within the department or the organization. The following statement is FALSE regarding memos:

A. Memos are sometimes used to document a face-to-face conversation.
B. Memos are used to transmit the same information to several locations or individuals.
C. Memos provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a formal manner.
D. Memos provide a written record of decisions, requests, or policies.

C. Memos provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a formal manner.
[FALSE - informal manner]

Which of the following statements represents the MOST COMMON cause of electrical fires?

A. An automatic coffee maker or similar appliance inadvertently being left on when the occupant leaves the premises.
B. Clothes dryers, both electric and gas, sometimes start fires because of a failure of the high temperature control of the timing mechanism.
C. Improperly installed wiring and/or equipment. Homeowners and business owners who lack the training to properly install electrical wiring and fixtures sometimes try to save money by doing the work themselves instead of calling a licensed contractor or electrician.
D. Misuse of the electrical system by the building occupants. This often involves the use of lightweight extension cords, sometimes called "zip cords".

D. Misuse of the electrical system by the building occupants. This often involves the use of lightweight extension cords, sometimes called "zip cords".

Line and staff are terms that refer to the traditional organizational concept that separates fire department personnel into two distinct groups: line personnel and staff personnel. Which of the following activities would be carried out by line personnel?

A. Personal administration.
B. Training.
C. Emergency Medical Services.
D. Logistics.

C. Emergency medical services.

Which of the following roles is a traditional staff role of the fire department?

A. Hazardous materials response.
B. Fire prevention.
C. Personal administration.
D. Public education.

C. Personal administration.

The responsibility that includes "supervising firefighters includes answering their questions and handling their complaints while maintaining order and discipline within the company. To do this, the company officer must communicate the organizations culture and goals downward to the company members, and identify community concerns and opportunities upward to the administration" is:

A. Keeping the work area safe and healthy.
B. Developing member skills.
C. Encouraging teamwork and cooperation.
D. Keeping records and making reports.

C. Encouraging teamwork and cooperation.

A prescriptive training program system is one in which clearly defined and measurable performance standards have been developed for all the various individual skills and company evolutions deems necessary for the department to be able to fill its mission. The following statement is FALSE regarding prescriptive training:

A. The company officer evaluates the skills of his company members.
B. The training officer and/or the company officer supervisor evaluates the company evolutions.
C. Any performance found to be deficient must be brought up to standard within a specific period of time.
D. Prescriptive training systems are very efficient because they are processed-based, not performance-based.

D. Prescriptive training systems are very efficient because they are processed-based, not performance-based. [FALSE - they are performance-based]

A _____ program system is one in which clearly defined and measurable performance standards have been developed for all the various individual skills and company evolutions deems necessary for the department to be able to fill its mission.

The company officer evaluates the skills of his company members; The training officer and/or the company officer supervisor evaluates the company evolutions; Any performance found to be deficient must be brought up to standard within a specific period of time;

These systems are very efficient because they are performance-based, not processed-based.

A. Small-step learning
B. Prescriptive training
C. Traditional training
D. Mastery learning

B. Prescriptive training system.

While sometimes similar to handing citizen concerns, handling public inquiries is usually less strident and confrontational. An absolutely essential fire department customer service player is the company officer boss. The following statement is TRUE regarding the company officer.

A. They need to make a phone call to get permission to check a form or a computer screen.
B. The need to look up in the ops manual to determine what is going on.
C. They are typically captain and lieutenant types who do first level supervision as an integral [inside] part of the service delivery team.
D. Company officers operate outside the basic fire department service delivery team - fire company.

C. They are typically captain and lieutenant types who do first level supervision as an integral [inside] part of the service delivery team.

The fifth step in the "five-step planning process" is the evaluation step. This is the bottom line of public fire and life safety education programs. There are two types of feedback in the evaluation step; immediate feedback and long-term feedback. Which of the following is an example of long-term feedback?

A. Regardless of what the audience thought of the program, if it resulted in fewer fires, then it obviously succeeded. On the other hand, if there is little or no positive change in the data, it probably means that the program is less than successful. Either way, this is the most meaningful and reliable evaluation possible.
B. This feedback is valuable for its freshness, and immediately but it lacks objective validity.
C. The audience is asked to participate in the pretest/post-test approach.
D. Most people score higher after the presentation than they did before it.

A. Regardless of what the audience thought of the program, if it resulted in fewer fires, then it obviously succeeded. On the other hand, if there is little or no positive change in the data, it probably means that the program is less than successful. Either way, this is the most meaningful and reliable evaluation possible.
-----------------------------------------
[The others are examples of immediate feedback]

While the experience may vary from department to department, NFPA statistics show that the majority of serious injuries to firefighters, as well as the greatest number of injuries, occur:

A. At the scene of emergency incidents.
B. During training.
C. While responding to a returning from alarms.
D. During housework.

A. At the scene of emergency incidents.

Improper lifting techniques can result not only a personal injury but also in damage to equipment that is dropped or improperly handled. Every firefighter should be trained in safe lifting techniques. Safe lifting techniques include... the exception is:

A. Getting as close the object as possible.
B. When lifting, firefighter should bend at the waist.
C. Getting a good grip on the object, keeping the back straight or slightly arched.
D. Lifting with the legs, not the back.
B.

B. When lifting, firefighter should bend at the waist. [FALSE]

Statutory law pertains to laws enacted by legislative bodies of government. 3 Examples:

1] _____ level - USFA, OSHA, EPA, EEOC, IRS

2] _____ level - created tax codes, marriage laws, voting laws, motor vehicle laws, gaming laws, hunting regulations, health and safety laws, and laws governing the special districts for fire protection, sanitation, recreation, education, ect.

3] _____ level - Created ordinances that adopt a particular addition of a building or fire code, establish speed limits on local streets and roads, require business licenses, and adopt the fire and emergency services organizations annual budget.

1] Federal level

2] State level

3] Local level

Which of the following is an example of a statutory law at the local level?

A. TAX CODES.
B. OSHA.
C. Hunting regulations.
D. Fire codes.

D. Fire codes. [Local level]
-----------------------------------------
A. TAX CODES. [State level]
B. OSHA. [Federal level]
C. Hunting regulations. [State level]

While it is possible for the same acts to be a violation of both criminal and civil law, most actionable behavior is either one or the other. Which of the following statements is most correct regarding criminal law?

A. It deals primarily with private rights and responsibilities.
B. It is the means by which society protects itself and it penalties are sometimes monetary.
C. It is the means by which individuals seek redress usually in the form of monetary damages.
D. The defendants guilt must be proven by a preponderance of the evidence.

B. It is the means by which society protects itself and it penalties are sometimes monetary. [Criminal law]
-----------------------------------------
A. It deals primarily with private rights and responsibilities. [Civil law]
C. It is the means by which individuals seek redress usually in the form of monetary damages. [Civil law]
D. The defendants guilt must be proven by a preponderance of the evidence. [Civil law]

In most cases, company officers will spend the majority of their time training with their firefighters "skill maintenance". Rather than focusing on learning new skills, this training focuses on maintaining the skills they have already learned. The following statement is TRUE regarding skill maintenance:

A. Drilling often involves nothing more than periodically practicing the skills that they do not apply frequently in the field is "Skill Maintance".
B. Drilling on using self-contained breathing apparatus is "Skill Maintance".
C. Drilling on applying cardiopulmonary resuscitation is "Skill Maintance".
D. Drilling on defibrillation techniques is "Skill Maintance".

A. Drilling often involves nothing more than periodically practicing the skills that they do not apply frequently in the field is "Skill Maintance".

[Other answers could possibly be correct but above answer is most correct]

The three most widely used forms of conflict resolution are mediation, arbitration, and fact-finding. Arbitration is sometimes required by local or state law is usually binding on both sides. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding arbitration?

A. The arbitrator is free to decide on any issue-by-issue basis.
B. Arbitrators look at the facts and developing list of suggested solutions.
C. The arbitrator meets separately with both sides in a conflict to identify the real issues and concerns that have caused the impasse.
D. Because arbitration is an all-or-nothing process, this forces each side to propose its most reasonable
package.

D. Because arbitration is an all-or-nothing process, this forces each side to propose its most reasonable
package. [TRUE]

The relationship-by-objectives [RBO] program is designed to improve relationships between labor and management. It concentrates on the process by which a labor and management may work co-operatively. An optional objective of this program is:

A. It does not replace the negotiation process between the entity and the union.
B. Development of skills that will enable participants to work together to address labor/management concerns.
C. Identification of viewpoints, conflicts, and concerns that hinder a productive labor/management relationship.
D. Formation of an objective-based plan designed to resolve problems into building mutually beneficial working relationship.

B. Development of skills that will enable participants to work together to address labor/management concerns.

Fire departments that do not have a full-time PIO may task company officers with preparing press or news releases. In preparing the piece, the following guidelines should be used; the most correct statement is:

A. Use the inverted pyramids style of organization by putting the least important facts first and the most important ones last.
B. limit sentence length to no more than 20 words.
C. Write more than six lines per paragraph. One sentence paragraphs are not acceptable.
D. Use flowery really language and technical or exotic terms, avoid writing clearly and concisely.

B. limit sentence length to no more than 20 words. [TRUE]
-----------------------------------------
A. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the least important facts first and the most important ones last. [FALSE - inverted pyramid style puts most important first]
C. Write more than six lines per paragraph. One sentence paragraphs are not acceptable.[FALSE - no more than 4-5 lines per paragraph / one sentence paragraphs are acceptable]
D. Use flowery really language and technical or exotic terms, avoid writing clearly and concisely.[FALSE - avoid using]

Company officers and the department administrations need to understand the difference between pre-incident surveys and code enforcement inspections. Each is conducted for entirely different purposes and should not be combined. The following statements are true regarding the pre-incident survey; the exception is:

A. Company officers concentrate on where and how fires are most likely to occur and how those fires are likely to behave.
B. Company officers focus on what is likely to happen and what they will need in order to mitigate those contingencies.
C. Company officers focus on any potential hazards to firefighter safety that may exist on the premises.
D. Company officers are there to see that the occupant has done everything that the code requires to prevent fires from occurring and that will allow the occupants to get out if and when he fired does occur.

D. Company officers are there to see that the occupant has done everything that the code requires to prevent fires from occurring and that will allow the occupants to get out if and when he fired does occur. [FALSE - this is code enforcement]

NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.

Type I construction is also called -

A. Fire-resistive construction.
B. Noncombustible.
C. Ordinary construction.
D. Heavy timber construction.
E. Woodframe construction.

A. Fire-resistive construction.

NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.

Type II construction is also called -

A. Fire-resistive construction.
B. Noncombustible.
C. Ordinary construction.
D. Heavy timber construction.
E. Woodframe construction.

B. Noncombustible.
aka noncombustible
aka limited combustible construction

NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.

Type III construction is also called -

A. Fire-resistive construction.
B. Noncombustible.
C. Ordinary construction.
D. Heavy timber construction.
E. Woodframe construction.

C. Ordinary construction.

NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.

Type IV construction is also called -

A. Fire-resistive construction.
B. Noncombustible.
C. Ordinary construction.
D. Heavy timber construction.
E. Woodframe construction.

D. Heavy timber construction.

NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.

Type V construction is also called -

A. Fire-resistive construction.
B. Noncombustible.
C. Ordinary construction.
D. Heavy timber construction.
E. Woodframe construction.

E. Woodframe construction.

NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.

Ordinary construction is also called:

A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.

C. Type III construction.

What makes IBC construction types different than NFPA construction types?

A. The NFPA designates five construction types, similar to IBC but with two subcategories for each type [with the exception of Type IV].
B. The IBC designates five construction types, similar to NFPA, but with two subcategories for each type [with the exception of Type IV].
C. The IBC designates five construction types, similar to NFPA, but with three. subcategories for each type [with the exception of Type IV].
D. A. The NFPA designates five construction types, similar to IBC but with three subcategories for each type [with the exception of Type IV].

B. The IBC designates five construction types, similar to NFPA, but with two subcategories for each type [with the exception of Type IV].

IBC Classifications:

_____ - Consists of noncombustible materials but with a reduced fire resistance rating when compared with Type I construction. Although the term is not completely accurate, this type is often referred to as a "1-hour building", which means that bearing walls and floors have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating.

_____ - Requires noncombustible fire-resistant material similar to Type I buildings insofar as the structural elements must be of steel, concrete, or masonry.

A. Type II.
B. Type IIA.
C. Type IIB.
D. Type IIC.

1] A. Type II.

2] B. Type IIA.

IBC Classifications:

1]_____ - Consists of structural elements made of any materials permitted by the code. Exterior bearing walls must have a 2-hour fire-resistant rating.

2]_____ - Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistant construction throughout the structure.

A. Type III.
B. Type IIIA.
C. Type IIIB.
D. Type IIIC.

1]A. Type III.

2]B. Type IIIA.

IBC Classifications:

1]_____ - Consists of structural elements made of any materials permitted by the code. Exterior bearing walls must have a 2-hour fire-resistant rating.

2]_____ - Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistant construction requirement for construction materials throughout the structure.

A. Type III.
B. Type IIIA.
C. Type IIIB.
D. Type IIIC.

1] A. Type III.

2] C. Type IIIB.

IBC Classifications:

1]_____ - Consists of structural elements and exterior and interior walls constructed of any materials permitted by the code [also known as wood-frame construction].

2]_____ - Requires a 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions.

A. Type V.
B. Type VA.
C. Type VB.
D. Type VC.

1] A. Type V.

2] B. Type VA.

IBC Classifications:

1]_____ - Consists of structural elements and exterior and interior walls constructed of any materials permitted by the code [also known as wood-frame construction].

2]_____ - May have non-fire-rated structural elements

A. Type V.
B. Type VA.
C. Type VB.
D. Type VC.

1] A. Type V.

2] C. Type VB.

NFPA 220 Classifications:

_____ -Consists of exterior walls in structural members that are portions of exterior walls that are made of noncombustible or limited combustible materials. Interior structural members, including walls, columns, beams, floors, and roofs, may be completely or partially constructed of wood. The wood used in these members are smaller dimensions than that required for heavy timber construction. Fire hazards can be reduced if fire-stops are placed inside concealed spaces to limit the spread of combustion byproducts.

A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.

C. Type III construction.

NFPA 220 Classifications:

The following are fire concerns/characteristics for _____ construction:

-Fire and smoke spreading through concealed spaces between walls, floors, and ceilings.
-Heat conducting to concealed spaces through finished materials [drywall or plaster] or holes in finished materials, causing heat, smoke, and gases to spread to other parts of the structure.
-Fire actually burning within concealed spaces and feeding on combustible construction materials in the space.

A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.

C. Type III construction.

Control Zones:

_____ - The outer boundary area of the cold zone would be _____ for the general public.

A. Prohibited line.
B. Control line.
C. No access line.
D. No entry line.

B. Control line.

aka Crowd-control line

What are the 3 "Modes of Operation"?

1. Offensive mode

2. Defensive mode

3. Transitional mode [switching from offensive to defensive mode bc of a rapid change in conditions]

There are several possible types of facilities that can be established in and around an incident. The types of facilities and their locations are determined by the requirements of the incidents as outlined in the incident action plan. An incident base is described as:

A. Locations at which minor support functions are performed on very large wildland incident. They may be relocated as the needs of the incident dictate.
B. The location at which resources are held in reserve. On wildland fires and other incidents, units are on a three-minute availability.
C. The location at which primary support functions are performed. There is only one and its location remains fixed throughout the incident.
D. The location from which all incident operations are directed. There is only one per incident.

C. The location at which primary support functions are performed. There is only one and its location remains fixed throughout the incident. [Incident Base]
-----------------------------------------
A. Locations at which minor support functions are performed on very large wildland incident. They may be relocated as the needs of the incident dictate. [Camps]

B. The location at which resources are held in reserve. On wildland fires and other incidents, units are on a three-minute availability. [Mobilization/Staging areas]

D. The location from which all incident operations are directed. There is only one per incident. [Incident Command Post - ICP]

Predesigned Incident Facilities:

_____ - Location from where all incident tactical operations are directed; located at or in the immediate vicinity of the incident site. There is only one per incident.

A. Operations base.
B. Incident command post.
C. Safe zone.
D. Incident command base.

B. Incident command post [ICP].

Predesigned Incident Facilities:

_____ - Any location where resources [personal, supplies, and equipment] are held in reserve while awaiting operational assignment.
Examples:
-Wildland fires and other incidents: Units are on a three-minute availability.
-High-rise fire: Staging is located two floors below the fire floor.

A. Incident base.
B. Camps.
C. Mobilization/staging areas.
D. Helibases.
E. Helispots.

C. Mobilization/staging areas.

Legitimate power is derived from one of three sources. The three sources of legitimate power are... the exception is:

A. Shared values.
B. Sanction of a legitimizing agent.
C. Acceptance of a social structure.
D. Knowledge or expertise.

D. Knowledge or expertise. [FALSE]

The company officer must communicate the organizational culture and goals downward to the company members and identify community concerns and opportunities upward to the administration. This would be known as:

A. Getting the job done.
B. Keeping the work area safe and healthy.
C. Encouraging teamwork incorporation.
D. Developing member skills.

C. Encouraging teamwork incorporation

Formal communications are essential to the successful discharge of the departments responsibility to the citizens of the community. Depending on the definition adopted by the authority having jurisdiction, these documents may be called by many different names [standard operating procedures/SOP, standing operating guidelines/SOG, policy and procedures manual/PPM, or general orders/GO]. The most common term used is standard operating procedures or SOP's. An SOP is defined as:

A. A guide to decision-making within an organization. They originate with top management in the department and are disseminated to lower levels for implementation.
B. A document which gives department members a reference point for decision-making. They promote more uniform, consistent practices throughout the organization and more predictable outcomes in the field.
C. Based upon the authority delegated to the officer to implement departmental policies and procedures.
D. Most fire departments provide their personnel with specific, detailed information about how specific situations should be handled.

D. Most fire departments provide their personnel with specific, detailed information about how specific situations should be handled. [SOP's]
-----------------------------------------
A. A guide to decision-making within an organization. They originate with top management in the department and are disseminated to lower levels for implementation. [POLICIES]
B. A document which gives department members a reference point for decision-making. They promote more uniform, consistent practices throughout the organization and more predictable outcomes in the field. [PROCEDURES]
C. Based upon the authority delegated to the officer to implement departmental policies and procedures. [ORDERS]

There are many symptoms that may indicate a firefighter is suffering from critical incident stress. Which of the following is one of the more common symptoms during an incident?

A. Feelings of guilt.
B. Irritability.
C. Sense of hopelessness.
D. Sleep disturbances.

C. Sense of hopelessness.

Regardless of how well planned and prioritize the daily schedule is, it is always subject to change - especially by fires and other emergencies. It is good to remember that handling emergencies is the company's primary job. An activity that falls into the "may-do" category is:

A. Training.
B. Preventative maintenance.
C. Code enforcement.
D. Public education.

B. Preventative maintenance.

Company Level Training:

_____ - One of the most effective teaching models used for instructional delivery. Instructors use this model to develop lesson plans and as a process for teaching lessons and courses. Company officers can use the process for effective company level training. The model consists of preparation, presentation, application, and evaluation.

A. Small-step learning.
B. Prescriptive training.
C. Traditional training.
D. Mastery learning.
E. Skill maintenance.
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
G. Four-step method of instruction.

G. Four-step method of instruction.

Company Level Training:

_____ - Adopts measurable performance standards for each level. The training then focuses on helping the member meet these standards. If the performance standards are well done the training will be effective. The company officer just needs to adopt the performance standards into measurable objectives. Is performance based.

A. Small-step learning.
B. Prescriptive training.
C. Traditional training.
D. Mastery learning.
E. Skill maintenance.
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
G. Four-step method of instruction.

B. Prescriptive training.

Company Level Training:

_____ - Learning efficiency is increased when skills are taught from simplest to most complex [also called production order].

A. Small-step learning.
B. Prescriptive training.
C. Traditional training.
D. Mastery learning.
E. Skill maintenance.
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
G. Four-step method of instruction.

F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.

Company Level Training:

_____ - Consists of clearly defined and measurable performance standards for various skills necessary for a department to meet its goals [i.e. SCBA, defibrillators, ladders]. Is very effective because it is performance based.

A. Small-step learning.
B. Prescriptive training.
C. Traditional training.
D. Mastery learning.
E. Skill maintenance.
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
G. Four-step method of instruction.

B. Prescriptive training.

In addition to the fire protection agency, a local government is likely to include one or more of the agencies discussed in the following paragraphs. The definition which is most closely associated with "civil groups" is:

A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues.

D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues. [Civil groups]
-----------------------------------------
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.[Building department]
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.[Law enforcement]
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.[Zoning commission]

In addition to the fire protection agency, a local government is likely to include one or more of the agencies discussed in the following paragraphs. The definition which is most closely associated with "Law enforcement" is:

A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues.

B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.[Law enforcement]
-----------------------------------------
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.[Building department]
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.[Zoning commission]
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues. [Civil groups]

In addition to the fire protection agency, a local government is likely to include one or more of the agencies discussed in the following paragraphs. The definition which is most closely associated with "Building department" is:

A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues.

A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.[Building department]
-----------------------------------------
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.[Law enforcement]
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.[Zoning commission]
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues. [Civil groups]

In addition to the fire protection agency, a local government is likely to include one or more of the agencies discussed in the following paragraphs. The definition which is most closely associated with "Zoning commission" is:

A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues.

C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.[Zoning commission]
-----------------------------------------
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.[Building department]
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.[Law enforcement]
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues. [Civil groups]

Five-Step Planing Process:

Step 1: _____ -Major fire and life safety problems.

Step 2: _____ - The most cost-effective objectives for the education program.

Step 3: _____ - The program.

Step 4: _____ - The program plan.

Step 5: _____ - The program to determine impact.

Step 1: Identify
Step 2: Select
Step 3: Design
Step 4: Implement
Step 5: Evaluate

Five-Step Planing Process:

The following are some of the questions asked during the _____ step:
-What are the major fire and burn hazards?
-Where are the high-risk locations?
-When are the high-risk times?
-Who are the high-risk audiences?
-What is the high-risk behavior?

A. Step 1: Identification step.
B. Step 2: Selection step.
C. Step 3: Design step.
D. Step 4: Implementation step.
E. Step 5: Evaluation step.

A. Step 1: Identification step.

Five-Step Planing Process:

The following are some of the questions asked during the _____ step:
-Who are the potential audiences?
-What are the potential costs and benefits of various training options?
-What resources are available within the community?

A. Step 1: Identification step.
B. Step 2: Selection step.
C. Step 3: Design step.
D. Step 4: Implementation step.
E. Step 5: Evaluation step.

B. Step 2: Selection step.

Five-Step Planing Process:

By the end of the _____ step, program planners will be able to reach a crucial decision: "the specific objectives of the education program."

A. Step 1: Identification step.
B. Step 2: Selection step.
C. Step 3: Design step.
D. Step 4: Implementation step.
E. Step 5: Evaluation step.

B. Step 2: Selection step.

Five-Step Planing Process:

Is where the day-to-day job of public fire and life safety education happens. Planning the _____ step includes answering the following questions and identifying the associated tasks:
-How will the target audience participate and cooperate and implementing the program?
-How will public educators be trained and scheduled?
-How will materials be produced and distributed?

A. Step 1: Identification step.
B. Step 2: Selection step.
C. Step 3: Design step.
D. Step 4: Implementation step.
E. Step 5: Evaluation step.

D. Step 4: Implementation step.

Five-Step Planing Process:

_____ the "bottom line" of public fire and life safety education. It is the point for measuring the effects of education programs and modifying them as needed.

A. Step 1: Identification step.
B. Step 2: Selection step.
C. Step 3: Design step.
D. Step 4: Implementation step.
E. Step 5: Evaluation step.

E. Step 5: Evaluation step.

The most widely known job action is a strike, but there are others. Especially in the Public Safety sector where strikes were illegal, workers invented other ways of applying pressure on management in order to achieve their goals. The job action described as: "While the firefighters report for duty as scheduled, once on duty they refuse to do anything but respond to emergency calls. After they check their emergency clothing and equipment to make sure everything is ready if needed, then firefighter sit down, play cards, watch TV, or do anything other than their normal routine duties. This tactic can put a lot of pressure on company officers unless they are part of the job action also." is known as a _____ job action.

A. Selective duty.
B. Sick-out.
C. Work-to-rule.
D. Strike.

A. Selective duty.

[Define others]

Usually shortened to just "Memos", memoranda are a form of letter. Their format usually includes the following headings: Date, To, From, and Subject. The following statements are TRUE regarding purposes of "memos"... the exception is:

A. To transmit the same information to several locations or individuals.
B. To provide a written record of decisions, requests, or policies.
C. To be used for external communication outside the department.
D. To provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a somewhat informal manner.

C. To be used for external communication outside the department. [FALSE - used within an organization]

In all occupancies, regardless of size or classification, there are certain general fires and life safety items that must be inspected. These items fall into six categories: Means of Egress, Housekeeping, Processes, Storage, Waste Management, and Fire Protection.
These are referred to as the _____ .

A. General Inspection Categories
B. Required Inspection Categories.
C. Mandatory Inspection Categories.
D. Special Inspection Categories.

A. General Inspection Categories.

Determining the Cause of the Fire:

Generally, fires may be classified as: [4]
1. _____ - Those that did not result from intentional or malicious human activity.
2._____ - Those that result from phenomena such as lightning strikes and earthquakes and not from human activity.
3._____ - Those that involve human activity and are deliberately set. The intent may or may not be malicious.
4._____ - Is the classification used when the specific cause of a fire cannot be determined.

1. Accidental fires
2. Natural fires
3. Incendiary fires
4. Undetermined

Determining the Cause of the Fire:

_____ - Although intentional, these fires lack the malicious intent. However, may still result in litigation if negligence is alleged.

A. Accidental fires.
B. Natural fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Undetermined.

A. Accidental fires.

[An example could be a person burning leaves carelessly and the fire becomes out-of-control.]

Report drawings are polished versions of field sketches, and they must be drawn to scale showing the essential details of the building and its surroundings. The details should be shown using the standard mapping symbols adopted by the department. If an item must be included for which there is no standard symbol, it should be indicated by a:

A. Numeral within a square.
B. Letter within a square.
C. Numeral within a circle.
D. Letter within a circle.

C. Numeral within a circle.

_____ are based on the Layman Decision-Making Model RECEO-VS.
They are the overall plans for controlling an incident. They are broad, general statement of the final outcome to be achieved. These goals are dictated by the three overall priorities of life safety, incident stabilization, and property conservation.

A. Tactical objectives.
B. Operational strategies.
C. Orders.
D. Procedures.

B. Operational strategies.
aka Strategic goals

Under IMS, the first arriving officer has three operational modes available. An example of the "nothing showing mode" is:

A. Appoint one of the crew members as the acting officer, and give him a portable radio and an assignment.
B. He should direct the other responding units to stage at Level I, accompany the crew on an investigation of the situation, and maintain command using a portable radio.
C. Assign the crew to work under the supervision of another company officer.
D. Use the crew members to perform staff functions in support of command.

B. He should direct the other responding units to stage at Level I, accompany the crew on an investigation of the situation, and maintain command using a portable radio. [Nothing-showing]
-----------------------------------------
A. Appoint one of the crew members as the acting officer, and give him a portable radio and an assignment. [Formal command]
C. Assign the crew to work under the supervision of another company officer. [Formal command]
D. Use the crew members to perform staff functions in support of command. [Formal command]

Resource Allocation:

Agreements with other jurisdictions or agencies are normally formal, written plans that define the roles of the participants. Agreements can be categorized as three different types:

1.
2.
3.

1. Mutual aid
2. Automatic aid
3. Outside aid

Company officers may be asked to assist in the development and maintenance of mutual aid plans. The following statements are TRUE regarding mutual aid plans... the exception is:

A. Define roles of each agency, including incident management and chains of command.
B. Address insurance policy payments and legal considerations that may affect the agreement.
C. Define lines and methods of communication.
D. Establish operating guidelines.
E. Include common terminology, references, specifications, equipment compatibility, and other factors that may directly affect the effectiveness of the different organizations in working with each other.
F. Provide maps, evacuation routes, hydrant locations and data, details of potentially affected systems [sewers, railroads, waterways, etc.], and similar informational useful in a response outside of once jurisdiction.
G. Address insurance and legal considerations that may affect agreement.
H. Establish additional nonemergency agreements such as training and routine communications as required.

B. Address insurance "policy payments" and legal considerations that may affect the agreement. [FALSE]

The term used to describe the common organizational structure in the fire service is scalar The scalar organization is a paramilitary, pyramid type of organization with authority centralized at the top. The following statements are TRUE regarding scalar organizations... the exception is:

A. Information is decentralized for decision-making.
B. Span of control is maintained.
C. Well-suited for dealing with emergency situations.
D. A functional chain of command is maintained.

A. Information is "decentralized" for decision-making. [FALSE]

Statutory laws are those that are passed by the US Congress, state legislators, or local entities. These laws may be revised or repealed by the body that enacted them. An example of a state statutory law is:

A. Adopt the fire department's annual budget.
B. Health and safety laws.
C. Law creating the Occupational Health & Safety administration.
D. Fire code.

B. Health and safety laws. [State]
-----------------------------------------
A. Adopt the fire department's annual budget. [Local]
C. Law creating the Occupational Health & Safety administration. [Federal]
D. Fire code. [Local]

Many items of information may be brought into court to aid in establishing the prevailing standard of care. Some of the strongest types of evidence are an organization's own guidelines and policies and _____ .

A. Professional texts and manuals [Such as IFSTA manuals].
B. Opinions of expert witnesses.
C. Research publications.
D. National consensus standards [such as NFPA].

D. National consensus standards [such as NFPA].

Maslow's "Hierarchy of Needs" theory, Provides one explanation of why individuals behave the way they do. The step described as "These needs are satisfied when people feel that they are doing what they were meant to do. When people find their niche, their work becomes of their life" is known as:

A. Basic physiological needs.
B. Esteem and Status needs.
C. Belonging and Social Activity needs.
D. Self-Actualization and Fulfillment needs.

D. Self-Actualization and Fulfillment needs.

[Define all]

There are several basic types of leadership. _____ involves a high degree of concern for people and a high concern for production. This type of leadership offers workers the luxury of working for a leader who is concerned about their needs and is willing to allow them to produce.

A. Bureaucratic leadership.
B. Single-issue leadership.
C. Middle-of-the-Road leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.

D. Dual-issue leadership.

Mastery learning is one of the most effective skill development and maintenance techniques. The TRUE statement regarding mastery learning is:

A. Mastery learning is more efficient for group instruction than the four-step-method.
B. Mastery learning uses "complex to simple" sequencing of material.
C. Mastery learning uses clearly defined and measurable performance standards which have been developed for all the various individual skills and company evolutions deemed necessary.
D. Mastery learning is used for those skills that relate directly to life safety.

D. Mastery learning is used for those skills that relate directly to life safety.

There are a variety of different types of operating budgets used by fire departments, both public and private, career and volunteer. Many public entities use the line-item budget because those reviewing it easily can see where the money goes. Which of the following expenses would be listed in the "others" expenses category?

A. Special pay for serving out of classification.
B. Contracts with fuel suppliers.
C. Purchase of a new fire engine.
D. Life insurance, and workers compensation insurance.

B. Contracts with fuel suppliers.
________________________________
A. Special pay for serving out of classification. [Operating budget]
C. Purchase of a new fire engine. [Capital budget]
D. Life insurance, and workers compensation insurance. [Operating budget]

Total quality management also known as continuous quality improvement, has been adopted by many private businesses and public organizations. It is based on for elements. The most important of these elements is:

A. Customer identification feedback.
B. Tracking performance.
C. Consistent and continuous improvement.
D. Employee participation in all processes.

D. Employee participation in all processes.

The following statement is TRUE regarding the fire commission... the exception is:

A. A few states have established commissions to conduct fire service training and certification programs.
B. The commission advises the legislature or assembly on fire related legislation.
C. The commission oversees the fire prevention program.
D. The commissioner commonly serves on panels and committees tasked with state planning for hazardous materials control and disaster preparedness.

A. A few states have established commissions to conduct fire service training and certification programs. [FALSE - most states [47]]

Two of the most effective means of enhancing the fire department image through public education our media programs and _____ .

A. Day-to-day contact with department personnel at fires.
B. Times when the citizens make inquiries or lodge complaints.
C. Group presentations to civic groups, service clubs, and other organizations.
D. Inspections.

C. Group presentations to civic groups, service clubs, and other organizations.

[There are actually 3 ways: media, group presentation, and direct assistance]

The typical EMS report is a combination of an incident report, which is open to the public by law, and a patient care report that is privileged information that the public is not allowed to see. Information about each of the following is open to the public... the exception is:

A. Information about the response, its location, who responded, general nature of the incident.
B. How many patients were involved.
C. Nature of the medical problem, mechanism of injury.
D. Information about patient transport to a medical facility.

C. Nature of the medical problem, mechanism of injury.

Formal communications consist of written policies and procedures, standing operating procedures, orders and directives, and fire ground orders. Policies and procedures are examples of "standing" or "repeat use" plans designed to deal with the reoccurring problems of an organization. The following statements are TRUE regarding policies and procedures... the exception is:

A. A policy is a guy to decision-making within an organization.
B. A policy provides fire department personnel specific and detailed information about how specific situations should be handled.
C. Policies not only aid in decision-making, but they also define the boundaries within which the administration expects company officers to act.
D. Written policies give department members a reference point for decision-making.

B. A "policy" provides fire department personnel specific and detailed information about how specific situations should be handled. [FALSE - Procedure]

There are many symptoms that may indicate that a firefighter is suffering from critical incident stress. stress. The following symptoms which occur during an incident are... the exception is:

A. Irritability.
B. Anger.
C. Frustration.
D. Sense of hopelessness.

A. Irritability. [Happens after]

Which of the following answers is an example of "discipline"?

A. Breaking large jobs down into smaller tasks that are assigned to specific individuals.
B. Refers to an organization's responsibility to provide the direction needed to satisfy the goals and objectives it has identified. It means setting the limits or boundaries for expected performance and enforcing them.
C. The number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise.
D. Although each member reports to one supervisor directly, every member is still responsible to the Fire Chief indirectly.

B. Refers to an organization's responsibility to provide the direction needed to satisfy the goals and objectives it has identified. It means setting the limits or boundaries for expected performance and enforcing them.
-----------------------------------------
A. Breaking large jobs down into smaller tasks that are assigned to specific individuals. [Division of labor]
C. The number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise. [Span of control]
D. Although each member reports to one supervisor directly, every member is still responsible to the Fire Chief indirectly. [Chain of command]

Which of the following examples is an example of a statutory law at the local level?

A. Laws governing the formation of special districts for fire protection, sanitation, and recreation.
B. Hunting regulations.
C. Adopt a particular edition of a fire code.
D. Occupational health and safety administration.

C. Adopt a particular edition of a fire code. [Local]
-----------------------------------------
A. Laws governing the formation of special districts for fire protection, sanitation, and recreation. [State]
B. Hunting regulations. [State]
D. Occupational health and safety administration. [Federal]

Blake and Mouton's book @The Managerial Grid" theorized that there are several basic types of leadership. The type of leadership characterized: "By an overriding concern for production. This results from a high concern for production, and a low concern for employee needs. This form is often associated with the Theory X perspective, attempting to arrange conditions so that the human element only minimally affects production", is known as:

A. Bureaucratic leadership.
B. Single-issue leadership.
C. Middle-of-the-Road leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.

B. Single-issue leadership.

There are five major responsibilities that are common to all supervisors. Which of the following statements describes the major responsibility of "encouraging teamwork and cooperation"?

A. Stress safety when teaching firefighters any new skill.
B. Carefully plan, schedule, and coordinate work so that subordinates know what they are supposed to do and the expected results.
C. To do this, the company officer must communicate the organizational culture and goals downward to the company members, and identified community concerns and opportunities upward to the administration.
D. Company officer should encourage their firefighters to grow in their jobs, accept more responsibility, and consistently strive to be the best firefighters and public servants of which they are capable.

C. To do this, the company officer must communicate the organizational culture and goals downward to the company members, and identified community concerns and opportunities upward to the administration.

The four-step method of instruction is one of the most widely used techniques for presenting new information in the fire service. Which of the following statements is the essence of the application step?

A. Any lapses in instruction will be identified and any misunderstandings corrected. It is critical that the firefighters be given the opportunity to practice applying the new information until they get it right.
B. That the firefighter demonstrate, by the means state in the behavioral objective, that he understands the new material and can apply it effectively.
C. That both the firefighter and the company officer know the important of the information to be presented. If either part of the step is ignored or done superficially, the rest of the presentation is likely to be less effective.
D. That firefighters be given all the information they need to meet the behavioral objectives stated in the lesson plan.

A. Any lapses in instruction will be identified and any misunderstandings corrected. It is critical that the firefighters be given the opportunity to practice applying the new information until they get it right. [Application]
-----------------------------------------
B. That the firefighter demonstrate, by the means state in the behavioral objective, that he understands the new material and can apply it effectively. [Evaluation]
C. That both the firefighter and the company officer know the important of the information to be presented. If either part of the step is ignored or done superficially, the rest of the presentation is likely to be less effective. [Preparation]
D. That firefighters be given all the information they need to meet the behavioral objectives stated in the lesson plan. [Presentation]

There are many symptoms of critical incident stress. Some of the more common delayed symptoms are... the exception is:

A. Irritability.
B. Restlessness.
C. Feelings of guilt.
D. Sense of hopelessness.

D. Sense of hopelessness. [Immediate/during an incident]

Progressive discipline usually involves three levels - preventive action, corrective action, and punitive action. Which of the following statements describes a corrective action?

A. The violator is given a letter, or one is sent by certified mail with a return receipt requested to guarantee that it is received. The letter includes a description of what the firefighter is or is not doing that violates department rules, review the department policy regarding the possible consequences if the behaviors continued, and a statement informing the firefighter that a copy of the letter will be placed in his file.
B. The violator is taken aside for an informal but private interview. During the interview, the company officer makes sure that the firefighter understands both the rule that was violated and the organizational necessity for the rule. The company officer should explain exactly what is expected of the firefighter in the future and what may happen if the rule is violated again.
C. Suspension.
D. Termination.

A. The violator is given a letter, or one is sent by certified mail with a return receipt requested to guarantee that it is received. The letter includes a description of what the firefighter is or is not doing that violates department rules, review the department policy regarding the possible consequences if the behaviors continued, and a statement informing the firefighter that a copy of the letter will be placed in his file. [Corrective action]
-----------------------------------------
B. The violator is taken aside for an informal but private interview. During the interview, the company officer makes sure that the firefighter understands both the rule that was violated and the organizational necessity for the rule. The company officer should explain exactly what is expected of the firefighter in the future and what may happen if the rule is violated again. [Preventative action]
C. Suspension. [Punitive action]
D. Termination. [Punitive action]

What are the three levels of progressive discipline:

1]
2]
3]

1. Preventive action [verbal warning]

2. Corrective action [written warning]

3. Punitive action [suspension/termination]

Which of the following activities takes place in the "warm zone"?

A. Providing emergency lighting.
B. Vehicle extrication.
C. Command post.
D. Hazardous materials releases are controlled and contained.

A. Providing emergency lighting. [Warm zone]
-----------------------------------------
B. Vehicle extrication. [Hot zone]
C. Command post. [Cold zone]
D. Hazardous materials releases are controlled and contained. [Hot zone]

Feedback from a public fire and life safety program is critical. Feedback may be immediate or it may be long-term. Regardless of how feedback is obtained, it must be heeded. While positive feedback may be very gratifying, negative feedback may be more valuable. Which of the following statements best represents short-term feedback?

A. Ask the members to use the pretest/posttest feedback approach which works best with adult groups.
B. The results of the public education program are demonstrated in a positive change in the data on the fire and life safety within the community.
C. The results of the public education program are monitored over time.
D. Ask the members to fill out an evaluation form at the end of the program.

D. Ask the members to fill out an evaluation form at the end of the program. [Short-term feedback]
-----------------------------------------
A. Ask the members to use the pretest/posttest feedback approach which works best with adult groups. [Evaluation]
B. The results of the public education program are demonstrated in a positive change in the data on the fire and life safety within the community. [Long-term feedback]
C. The results of the public education program are monitored over time. [Long-term feedback]

In general, there are two types of budgets used by public entities - capital budgets and operating budgets. Even though these budgets include very different items and serve very different purposes, they are often combined into one budget document. Company officers are often involved in planning and preparing both types of budgets. Which of the following is an example of a capital budget item?

A. Fire hose. C. Benefits.
B. Salaries. D. Station utilities.

A. Fire hose. [Capital budget]
-----------------------------------------
B. Salaries. [Operating budget]
C. Benefits. [Operating budget]
D. Station utilities. [Operating budget]

The following statements are TRUE regarding "memos" ... the exception is:

A. Memos are sometimes used to document a face-to-face conversation or telephone call.
B. Memos provide a written record of decisions, requests, or policies.
C. Memos transmit the same information to several locations or individuals.
D. Memos provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a somewhat formal manner.

D. Memos provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a somewhat "formal" manner. [False - informal manner]

When preparing a news or press release the content should be limited to the facts of the event or topic and should be as simple and straightforward as possible. The following guidelines are FALSE regarding preparation of a news release the exception is:

A. Limit sentence length to no more than 30 to 35 words.
B. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the most important facts first and the least important ones last.
C. Do not write one sentence paragraphs.
D. Summarize the piece at the end by including Who, What, Where, and Why in that specific order.

B. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the most important facts first and the least important ones last. [True]
-----------------------------------------
A. Limit sentence length to no more than "30 to 35" words. [20 words]
C. "Do not write" one sentence paragraphs. [are acceptable]
D. Summarize the piece at the "end" by including Who, What, Where, and Why in that "specific order". [In the first sentence / doesn't have to be in that order]

Size-up is an ongoing process of evaluating a situation to determine what has happened, what is happening, what is likely to happen, and what resources will be needed to resolve the situation. One way to conform to the size-up definition given earlier involves using a three-step process. Evaluating any emergency, regardless of its specific nature, can be done by using the three-step process of locate, isolate, mitigate. Which of the following statements is an example of "isolate"?

A. Head to toe medical exam of the patient.
B. Striking additional alarms to get more personnel and equipment to the scene of a structure fire.
C. Damning or taking contaminated runoff water to limit it spread.
D. Determine what will be needed to eliminate the problem.

C. Damning or taking contaminated runoff water to limit it spread. [Isolate]
-----------------------------------------

General Staff Composition and Duties:

_____ - Responsible for financial, reimbursement, and administrative services to support incident management activities; includes the compensation/claims, procurement, cost, and time units

A. Command.
B. Planning Section.
C. Operations Section.
D. Logistics Section.
E. Finance/Administration Section.
F. Information and intelligence function.

E. Finance/Administration Section.

General Staff Composition and Duties:

_____ - Responsible for managing internal information, intelligence, and operational security requirements supporting incident management activities; activated if necessary and may be the responsibility of a law enforcement official or unit; maybe part of the Command Staff, part of the Planning Section, or assigned independently

A. Command.
B. Planning Section.
C. Operations Section.
D. Logistics Section.
E. Finance/Administration Section.
F. Information and intelligence function.

F. Information and intelligence function.

Listening is the key skill in one-to-one communications. It requires focus, energy, and a commitment to really hear what is meant as well as what is being said. The following statements are FALSE regarding listening... the exception is:

A. React to the messenger, not the message.
B. Focus on the issues, not the person.
C. Interrupt the speaker to ask questions or take issue with the speaker's position.
D. Take the responsibility for communication.

B. Focus on the issues, not the person.

Regardless of who is responsible for the incident report, it should be consistent with National Fire Incident Reporting System [NFIRS]. The casualty section of the report should contain... the exception is:

A. Name of injured/deceased.
B. Any equipment lost or broken.
C. Home address.
D. Age.

B. Any equipment lost or broken.

Usually shortened to just "memos", memoranda are a form of letter that is usually reserved for internal communication only. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding memos:

A. To transmit the same information to several locations or individuals.
B. Memos are not used to document a face-to-face conversation or telephone call.
C. To provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a formal manner.
D. Does not provide a written record of decisions, requests, or policies.

A. To transmit the same information to several locations or individuals. [True]
-----------------------------------------
B. Memos are "not" used to document a face-to-face conversation or telephone call. [False]
C. To provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a "formal" manner. [False - informal]
D. Does "not" provide a written record of decisions, requests, or policies. [False]

Human Factor: [3]

_____ - Includes insufficient knowledge, misunderstandings, indecision, inexperience, poor training, or failure to recognize potential hazards. These problems can be reduced or eliminated through training.

A. Lack of knowledge or skill.
B. Improper attitude.
C. Physically unsuited.
D. Complacency.

A. Lack of knowledge or skill.

Human factors are an individual's attributes or personal characteristics that cause this individual to be involved in more or fewer accidents and other individuals. Human factors that often contribute to accidents have been classified into three broad categories. Improper attitude includes:

A. Insufficient knowledge.
B. Obesity.
C. Intoxication.
D. Willful disregard.

D. Willful disregard. [Improper attitude]
-----------------------------------------
A. Insufficient knowledge. [Lack of knowledge or skill]
B. Obesity. [Physically unsuited]
C. Intoxication. [Physically unsuited]

In behavioral psychology, the act termed as "_____" is collecting positive/negative strokes, then "cashing ____ in" to do positive [if many positive "_____" are collected] or negative [retaliating against those that gave negative strokes].

A. Praise.
B. Acknowledgment
C. Stroke.
D. Stamp collecting.

D. Stamp collecting.

[also called "gunny sacking"]

Victor Voom, developed a theory of motivation that attempts to explain why people are motivated and others are not. He called this the "V.I.E. Theory of Motivation", although many people simply refer to it as the Expectancy Theory. Which of the following statements contained the "operative" elements?
1] The strength of the individual's desire to achieve some goal.
2] The availability of a means to achieve the goal.
3] The strength of that individual's belief that he can achieve that goal.

A. Statements #1 & #3 are correct.
B. Statements #2 & #3 are correct.
C. Statements #1 & #2 are correct.
D. All three statements are correct.

A. Statements #1 & #3 are correct.

Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs Theory includes 5 characteristics... the exception is:

A. Biological.
B. Safety.
C. Social.
D. Ego.
E. Self-actualization.
F. Societal recognition.

F. Societal recognition. [FALSE]

A formal critique consists of a written report of the critiques findings, it should be shared with the members who attended, other fire department members, and the mutual aid departments that responded. The first part of the written report should contain:

A. Specific address of the incident.
B. Vital statistics.
C. Lessons learned.
D. Problems encountered.

D. Problems encountered. [First]
-----------------------------------------
A. Specific address of the incident.
B. Vital statistics. [Middle]
C. Lessons learned. [Final / Conclusion]

Span of control is the number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise. There are a number of variables that affect the span of control. A variable which would allow a minimal supervision is:

A. The ability and experience of the subordinates.
B. If mistakes by the workers are of little consequence.
C. Dissimilarity to tasks being performed by others.
D. Workers are widely separated from the supervisor and each other.

B. If mistakes by the workers are of little consequence.
-----------------------------------------
A. The ability and experience of the subordinates. [High experience or low experience?]
C. Dissimilarity to tasks being performed by others. [Difficult supervision]
D. Workers are widely separated from the supervisor and each other. [Difficult supervision]

The variables that affect span of control in any given situation are as follows... the exception is:

A. Ability and experience of the supervisor.
B. Ability and experience of the subordinates.
C. Nature of the task.
D. Proximity of subordinates to the supervisor and each other.
E. Consequence of a mistake.
F. Jurisdiction Having Authority [JHA] of the incident.

F. Jurisdiction Having Authority [JHA] of the incident. [FALSE]
-----------------------------------------
[A. through E. are all TRUE p.242]

Effective supervision, or maintaining Span of Control, is extremely difficult in the following circumstances... the exception is:

A. Tasks being performed are very complex.
B. Workers level of training is minimal.
C. When mistakes by workers are of little consequence.
D. Workers are performing dissimilar tasks.
E. Workers are widely separated from the supervisor and each other.

C. When mistakes by workers are little consequence. [FALSE]
-----------------------------------------
[The rest are all TRUE p.242]

At a major incident, the IC fails to organize the incident scene resources in a way that allows authority to be delegated appropriately [through Span of Control]. The IC attempts to directly control all on-scene units, makes every decision at all levels, and is soon overwhelmed by the myriad details of the operation. This situation can cause the following conditions... the exception is:

A. Chaos at the incident scene.
B. Breakdowns in communication and coordination.
C. Duplication of effort by units operating on their own without consulting command.
D. Large jobs are divided into smaller tasks that are then assigned to specific individuals.
E. Confused, ineffective operation at best and perhaps losses of life and property.
E.

D. Large jobs are divided into smaller tasks that are then assigned to specific individuals. [FALSE - this is Division of Labor]
-----------------------------------------
[The rest are TRUE, p.242]

There are several variables that affect Span of Control in any given situation; one variable being "nature of the task". The following characteristics are TRUE regarding "nature of the task"... the exception is:

A. Urgency.
B. Conditions under which it must be performed, including the geographical area that subordinates may be working within.
C. Complexity.
D. Rate at which it must be performed.
E. Similarity/dissimilarity to tasks being performed by others.
F. Ability and experience of the subordinate.

F. Ability and experience of the subordinate. [FALSE - is a variable that effects Span of Control but not a specific characteristic of "nature of the task"]
-----------------------------------------
[A. through E. are all TRUE p. 242]

_____ power is derived from one of three sources: shared values, acceptance of social structure, or the sanction of a legitimizing agent. Company officers have this power because of the organizational structure of the department.

A. Coercive.
B. Expert.
C. Identification.
D. Position.

D. Position. [aka Legitimate Power or Organizational authority]

Corrective action, the second step in "progressive discipline" is used when a firefighter repeats a violation or commits a different violation. It may also be used if he commits a more serious violation as a first offense. Corrective action differs from preventative action primarily in that:

A. It is an informal but private interview.
B. It is always done in writing.
C. It results in termination.
D. The suspension is punitive in nature.

B. It is always done in writing. [Corrective action]
-----------------------------------------
A. It is an informal but private interview. [Preventative action]
C. It results in termination. [Punitive action]
D. The suspension is punitive in nature. [Punitive action]

Progressive discipline usually involves the following three levels:

1.
2.
3.

1. Preventative action

2. Corrective action

3. Punitive action

The following statements are TRUE regarding the process of preventative action... the exception is:

A. Ensure that the employee understands both the rule that was violated and the organizational necessity for the rule during the interview.
B. Explain exactly what is expected of the employee in the future and what may happen if the rule violated again.
C. Document the interview in a written record.
D. Suspension.

D. Suspension. [FALSE - Punitive action]

Corrective action is always done in writing; the letter includes the following information... the exception is:

A. Description of what transpired in the preventive interview if one was held.
B. Description of what the employee is or is not doing that violates organizational rules.
C. Notice of suspension.
D. Review of organizational policy regarding the possible consequences if the behavior continues or a change in behavior fails to meet organizational standards.
E. Statement informing the employee that a copy of the letter will be placed in the employee's personal file.

C. Notice of suspension. [FALSE - Punitive action]

The following are possible sanctions of punitive action... the exception is:

A. Formal written reprimand [similar to corrective letter except it is considered severe and formal discipline].
B. Five [specific monetary payment].
C. Suspension [time off without pay].
D. Demotion [loss of rank].
E. Termination [dismissal from organization].
F. Discipline [tasked with additional chores as punishment].
G. Prosecution [legal action that may result in a large fine or jail time]

F. Discipline [tasked with additional chores as punishment]. [FALSE]

There are a host of different types of records kept by fire departments -many of them are at the company level. The three main categories of record keeping are maintenance, activity, and personal records. An example of maintenance record is:

A. Record of any emergency call to which the company responds.
B. Fire hose is inspected and tested annually to prevent it from failing during a fire.
C. Records of training conducted at company level.
D. Performance evaluations and work improvement plans.

B. Fire hose is inspected and tested annually to prevent it from failing during a fire. [Maintenance records]
-----------------------------------------
A. Record of any emergency call to which the company responds. [Activity records]
C. Records of training conducted at company level. [Activity records]
D. Performance evaluations and work improvement plans. [Personnel records]

Report drawings are polished versions of field sketches, and they must be drawn to scale. If an item must be included for which there is no standard symbol, should be indicated by a:

A. Number within a square.
B. Letter within a square.
C. Number within a circle.
D. Letter within a circle.

C. Number within a circle.

A[n] _____ allows a communication center to transmit dispatch information, incident patient status information, confidential messages not appropriate for verbal transmission over the radio, chemical information, and maps and charts. It may also be equipped with status buttons that allow the communication center to stay appraised of the units status [en route, on scene, available].

A. Geographic Information System [GIS].
B. Mobile Data Computer [MDC].
C. Global Positioning System [GPS].
D. Mobile Data Terminal [MDT].

D. Mobile Data Terminal [MDT].
-----------------------------------------
*Mobile Data Computer [MDC] differs from an MDT because a MDC has a keyboard that allows two-way communication between the mobile units and the telecommunications center instead of the status buttons that MDT uses to transmit it status.

One way to conform to the size-up definition involves using a three-step process. Which of the following actions, would take place in the "Locate" step of the process?

A. Taking a patient's medical history and doing a total body exam.
B. Stopping the spread of contaminant runoff water by damning or diking.
C. Striking additional alarms to get more personnel and equipment to the scene.
D. Requesting one or more tow trucks to remove damaged and disabled vehicles.

A. Taking a patient's medical history and doing a total body exam. [Locate]
-----------------------------------------
B. Stopping the spread of contaminant runoff water by damning or diking. [Isolate]
C. Striking additional alarms to get more personnel and equipment to the scene. [Mitigate]
D. Requesting one or more tow trucks to remove damaged and disabled vehicles. [Mitigate]

Once an incident action plan has been developed, it must be deployed in a way that will do the most good. One of the first decisions relates to the mode of operation. Essentially, there are three possible modes of operation -defensive, offenses, rescue. Which of the following actions takes place in the offense of mode?

A. Search and rescue teams still take a charged hose line with them, but the line is only for their protection and that of those being rescued.
B. Sacrificing a building that is on fire to save others that are not burning.
C. Taking direct action to mitigate the problem, whatever that may be.
D. If the building is fully involved, and there are enough resources on scene, then the IC may decide that an offensive mode is possible.

C. Taking direct action to mitigate the problem, whatever that may be. [Offensive mode]
-----------------------------------------
A. Search and rescue teams still take a charged hose line with them, but the line is only for their protection and that of those being rescued. [Rescue mode]
B. Sacrificing a building that is on fire to save others that are not burning. [Defensive mode]
D. If the building is fully involved, and there are enough resources on scene, then the IC may decide that an offensive mode is possible. [Transitional attack mode]

In a still developing incident such as a working fire, the IC may be forced to use a defensive operational mode in the early stages because of resource limitations. But as additional resources arrived at the scene, it will be possible at some point to switch from a defensive to an offensive operational mode. This shift from defensive to offenses is referred to as:

A. Offensive mode
B. Defensive mode
C. Rescue mode
D. Transitional attack mode

D. Transitional attack mode

An example of a statutory law at the state level is:

A. Adoption of a particular edition of a fire code.
B. Laws that created OSHA.
C. Laws governing the formation of special districts for fire protection.
D. Laws that established speed limits on local streets and roads.

C. Laws governing the formation of special districts for fire protection. [State]
-----------------------------------------
A. Adoption of a particular edition of a fire code. [Local]
B. Laws that created OSHA. [Federal]
D. Laws that established speed limits on local streets and roads. [Local]

In their book The Managerial Grid, Blake and Mouton theorized that there are several basic types of leadership. Each of these types of leadership is based on the leaders concern [or lack thereof] for people and/or production. _____ Involves a high degree of concern for people, and a high concern for production. This type of leadership offers workers the luxury of working for a leader who is concerned about their needs and is willing to allow them to produce.

A. Single-issue leadership.
B. Bureaucratic leadership.
C. Middle-of-the-Road leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.

D. Dual-issue leadership.

Decision-Making Models:

Two generally accepted decision-making models are taught in business management courses:

_____ - the leader gathers information and makes the decision based on the best possible alternative to the situation. This type of decision model is usually applied to the exceptional [nonprogrammed] decisions that have the potential for high risk or uncertain outcomes.

A. Bounded rationality model.
B. Classical model.
C. Participatory management style.
D. Basic leadership model.

B. Classical model.

aka Rational model

Decision-Making Models:

Two generally accepted decision-making models are taught in business management courses:

_____ - Allows the leader to select the decision that will satisfy the minimal requirements of the situation. This type of decision model is usually applied to generic [programmed] decisions that have certain outcomes.

A. Bounded rationality model.
B. Classical model.
C. Participatory management style.
D. Basic leadership model.

A. Bounded rationality model.

Decision-making is a daily activity for company officers and other members of the fire and emergency services. Two generally accepted decision-making models are taught in business management courses: rational model and bounded rationality model. The rational or "classical model" is described as:

A. An individual makes some of those decisions for personal reasons such as career advancement.
B. Usually applied to generic decisions that have certain outcomes.
C. Usually applied to exceptional decisions that have the potential for high risk or uncertain outcomes.
D. Decisions are group decisions made by members of the management staff or a project team.

C. Usually applied to exceptional decisions that have the potential for high risk or uncertain outcomes. [Rational/Classical model]

Decision-Making Models:

Decisions can be classified as one of two classifications:

_____ - Decisions that are routine or reoccurring are usually made based on existing standards, rules, regulations, procedures, or policies of an organization.

Example:
-Implementing the Incident Command System [ICS] at all emergency incidents.

A. Generic [programmed] decisions.
B. Exceptional [nonprogrammed] decisions.
C. Generic [programmed] problem classification.
D. Exceptional [nonprogrammed] problem classification.

A. Generic [programmed] decisions.

Classify the Problem:

Just like decisions, problems may be one of two classifications. In either case, sufficient information must be gathered to classify the problem.

_____ - One that is reoccurring and may even be a symptom of a larger problem. It can usually be solved through the application of a rule, policy, or principle.

Example:
-Increase in job-related back injuries.

A. Generic [programmed] decisions.
B. Exceptional [nonprogrammed] decisions.
C. Generic [programmed] problem classification.
D. Exceptional [nonprogrammed] problem classification.

C. Generic [programmed] problem classification.

Decision-Making Models:

Decisions can be classified as one of two classifications:

_____ - Decisions that involve a non-reoccurring, nonroutine, unique, and significant situation.

Example:
-Involving the emergency expenditure of funds to purchase a replacement apparatus when an existing unit is destroyed.

A. Generic [programmed] decisions.
B. Exceptional [nonprogrammed] decisions.
C. Generic [programmed] problem classification.
D. Exceptional [nonprogrammed] problem classification.

B. Exceptional [nonprogrammed] decisions.

Classify the Problem:

Just like decisions, problems may be one of two classifications. In either case, sufficient information must be gathered to classify the problem.

_____ [_____] problem classification - One that may only occur once. But it must be dealt with by a response that is particular to or customized for that problem.

Example:
-Chemical spill caused by a transport vehicle accident.

A. Generic [programmed] decisions.
B. Exceptional [nonprogrammed] decisions.
C. Generic [programmed] problem classification.
D. Exceptional [nonprogrammed] problem classification.

D. Exceptional [nonprogrammed] problem classification.

Decision-Making Models:

Generally, problems are based on the following three considerations... the exception is:

A. Whether decisions are generic [program] or exceptional [nonprogram].B. Conditions to which decisions are subject.
C. Choice of decision making models used to solve the problem.
D. Skill or experience level of subordinates.

D. Skill or experience level of subordinates. [FALSE]

Decision-Making Models:

The conditions that affect decisions are classified as: Certainty; Risk ; & Uncertainty. Which of the following defines Uncertainty?

A. Decisions have known results and require specific resources. Generic decisions usually involve this.
B. Decisions will have probable consequences, although there is the possibility of unknown outcomes. Exceptional decisions will have this.
C. Decisions have completely unknown consequences, usually because of a lack of information. Exceptional decisions will have both risk and this.

C. Decisions have completely unknown consequences, usually because of a lack of information. Exceptional decisions will have both risk and this. [Uncertainty]
________________________________
A. Decisions have known results and require specific resources. Generic decisions usually involve this. [Certainty]
B. Decisions will have probable consequences, although there is the possibility of unknown outcomes. Exceptional decisions will have this. [Risk]

Decision-Making Models:

Both rational and bounded rationality models can be applied when making an individual or group decision. The use of a group in the decision-making process is basic to the _____ that is part of democratic management. As the name implies, members of the unit are involved or participate in the process.

A. Bounded rationality model.
B. Classical model.
C. Participatory management style.
D. Basic leadership model.

C. Participatory management style.

Just as there is a formal speech communication process and specific characteristics for effective speakers, there is also a process for preparing a speech. Following a logical sequence in the preparation of an oral presentation helps to ensure the success of the speech. The first step is to select the subject, the second step is to determine the purpose, then the next step is:

A. Generate the main ideas.
B. Develop the central idea.
C. Gather supporting evidence.
D. Evaluate the speech.

A. Generate the main ideas.
-----------------------------------------
9 - Steps:

Step 1: Select the topic.
Step 2: Determine the purpose.
Step 3: Generate the main ideas.
Step 4: Develop the central idea.
Step 5: Gather supporting evidence.
Step 6: Organize the speech.
Step 7: Rehearse the speech.
Step 8: Deliver the speech.
Step 9: Evaluate the speech.

Organize the Speech:

Using an outline format, arrange the central idea and main ideas along with the supporting data. The outline has the following three main parts: Introduction, Body, Conclusion. Which of the following explains "Conclusion":

A. Gets the attention of the audience and presents the central idea.
B. Develops the central idea and supports it with various analogies, stories, statistics, or opinions.
C. Summarizes the central idea, provides additional motivation, and requests action from the audience [in the case of the persuasive speech].

C. Summarizes the central idea, provides additional motivation, and requests action from the audience [in the case of the persuasive speech]. [Conclusion]
________________________________
A. Gets the attention of the audience and presents the central idea. [Introduction]
B. Develops the central idea and supports it with various analogies, stories, statistics, or opinions. [Body]

Organize the Speech:

Using an outline format, arrange the central idea and main ideas along with the supporting data. The outline has the following three main parts: Introduction, Body, Conclusion. Which of the following explains "Body":

A. Gets the attention of the audience and presents the central idea.
B. Develops the central idea and supports it with various analogies, stories, statistics, or opinions.
C. Summarizes the central idea, provides additional motivation, and requests action from the audience [in the case of the persuasive speech].

B. Develops the central idea and supports it with various analogies, stories, statistics, or opinions. [Body]
________________________________
A. Gets the attention of the audience and presents the central idea. [Introduction]
C. Summarizes the central idea, provides additional motivation, and requests action from the audience [in the case of the persuasive speech]. [Conclusion]

Organize the Speech:

Using an outline format, arrange the central idea and main ideas along with the supporting data. The outline has the following three main parts: Introduction, Body, Conclusion. Which of the following explains "Introduction":

A. Gets the attention of the audience and presents the central idea.
B. Develops the central idea and supports it with various analogies, stories, statistics, or opinions.
C. Summarizes the central idea, provides additional motivation, and requests action from the audience [in the case of the persuasive speech].

A. Gets the attention of the audience and presents the central idea. [Introduction]
________________________________
B. Develops the central idea and supports it with various analogies, stories, statistics, or opinions. [Body]
C. Summarizes the central idea, provides additional motivation, and requests action from the audience [in the case of the persuasive speech]. [Conclusion]

Organize the Speech:

The speech can be organized into one of five basic formats: Which of the following defines the format "Spatial"?

A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process.
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization.
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility.
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect [higher fire insurance premiums] and then the cause [increased response time]. It may also be arranged by first showing the cause [lack of funding for fire services] and the effect [increased fire loss in the community].
E. States a problem followed by the solution [which is used in the persuasive speech]. The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem.

C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility. [Spatial]
________________________________
A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process. [Chronological]
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization. [Topical]
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect [higher fire insurance premiums] and then the cause [increased response time]. It may also be arranged by first showing the cause [lack of funding for fire services] and the effect [increased fire loss in the community]. [Casual]
E. States a problem followed by the solution [which is used in the persuasive speech]. The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem. [Problem/solution]

Organize the Speech:

The speech can be organized into one of five basic formats: Which of the following defines the format "Problem/solution"?

A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process.
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization.
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility.
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect [higher fire insurance premiums] and then the cause [increased response time]. It may also be arranged by first showing the cause [lack of funding for fire services] and the effect [increased fire loss in the community].
E. States a problem followed by the solution [which is used in the persuasive speech]. The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem.

E. States a problem followed by the solution [which is used in the persuasive speech]. The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem. [Problem/solution]
________________________________
A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process. [Chronological]
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization. [Topical]
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility. [Spatial]
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect [higher fire insurance premiums] and then the cause [increased response time]. It may also be arranged by first showing the cause [lack of funding for fire services] and the effect [increased fire loss in the community]. [Casual]

Organize the Speech:

The speech can be organized into one of five basic formats: Which of the following defines the format "Causal"?

A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process.
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization.
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility.
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect [higher fire insurance premiums] and then the cause [increased response time]. It may also be arranged by first showing the cause [lack of funding for fire services] and the effect [increased fire loss in the community].
E. States a problem followed by the solution [which is used in the persuasive speech]. The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem.

D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect [higher fire insurance premiums] and then the cause [increased response time]. It may also be arranged by first showing the cause [lack of funding for fire services] and the effect [increased fire loss in the community]. [Casual]
________________________________
A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process. [Chronological]
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization. [Topical]
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility. [Spatial]
E. States a problem followed by the solution [which is used in the persuasive speech]. The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem. [Problem/solution]

Organize the Speech:

The speech can be organized into one of five basic formats: Which of the following defines the format "Chronological"?

A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process.
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization.
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility.
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect [higher fire insurance premiums] and then the cause [increased response time]. It may also be arranged by first showing the cause [lack of funding for fire services] and the effect [increased fire loss in the community].
E. States a problem followed by the solution [which is used in the persuasive speech]. The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem.

A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process. [Chronological]
________________________________
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization. [Topical]
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility. [Spatial]
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect [higher fire insurance premiums] and then the cause [increased response time]. It may also be arranged by first showing the cause [lack of funding for fire services] and the effect [increased fire loss in the community]. [Casual]
E. States a problem followed by the solution [which is used in the persuasive speech]. The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem. [Problem/solution]

Organize the Speech:

The speech can be organized into one of five basic formats: Which of the following defines the format "Topical"?

A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process.
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization.
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility.
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect [higher fire insurance premiums] and then the cause [increased response time]. It may also be arranged by first showing the cause [lack of funding for fire services] and the effect [increased fire loss in the community].
E. States a problem followed by the solution [which is used in the persuasive speech]. The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem.

B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization. [Topical]
________________________________
A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process. [Chronological]
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility. [Spatial]
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect [higher fire insurance premiums] and then the cause [increased response time]. It may also be arranged by first showing the cause [lack of funding for fire services] and the effect [increased fire loss in the community]. [Casual]
E. States a problem followed by the solution [which is used in the persuasive speech]. The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem. [Problem/solution]

Organize the Speech:

Once a format is selected, the material in the speech maybe further organized by using one of the following strategies: Primacy, Recency, Complexity, Specificity, Soft-to-hard evidence. Which is described as: "Move from opinions or inferences to facts and statistics; may take the form of a hypothetical situation that is supported then by specific figures."

A. Primacy.
B. Recency.
C. Complexity.
D. Specificity.
E. Soft-to-hard evidence.

E. Soft-to-hard evidence.

Company officers may be assigned the task of preparing press or news releases. When supplying the facts relating to an incident, company officers are in fact being interviewed; The following statement is TRUE regarding preparing a press release.

A. Write no more than 6-8 lines per paragraph.
B. Use flowery language and technical terms or jargon.
C. Use active voice.
D. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the least important facts first, and the most important ones last.

C. Use active voice. [True]
-----------------------------------------
A. Write no more than "6-8" lines per paragraph. [False - 4-5 lines]
B. "Use" flowery language and technical terms or jargon. [False - Avoid using]
D. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the "least" important facts first, and the "most" important ones last. [False - most important first, least important last]

In preparing a press release, use the following guidelines... the exception is:

A. Summarize the information in the first sentence by answering the questions who, what, when, where, and why. Information does not necessarily have to be in that order.
B. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the most important facts first and the least important ones last.
C. Limit sentence length to no more than 20 words.
D. Write no more than four or five lines per paragraph; one-sentence paragraphs are acceptable.
E. Use active voice.
F. Write clearly and concisely; avoid flowery language and technical terms or jargon.
G. Be sure that all direct quotes and paraphrased statements are properly attributed.
F. The content should be limited to the facts or opinions of the event or topic.

F. The content should be limited to the facts "or opinions" of the event or topic. [False]

If a reporter asks for a prepared press release on a particular event or topic, it can be submitted in one of two forms. Regardless of which form is used, the content should be limited to the facts of the event or topic and should be as simple straightforward as possible.
1] Narrative form - leaving it to the reporter to fill in the details; or
2] Outline form - as though it were a script.

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.

D. #1 & #2 are false. [Opposite]

One problem that has been associated with Theory Z leadership is:

A. A leadership style that focuses on production.
B. Employees rarely remain with the company for life.
C. A resistance to change.
D. Supervisor makes the decisions.

C. A resistance to change.

The term used to describe common organizational structure in the fire and emergency services is scalar. The true scalar structure is well-suited for dealing with emergency situations for a number of reasons. Which of the following answer choices is one of these reasons:

A. Decisions are made from the intermediate level down.
B. Information is centralized for decision-making.
C. Group decisions have greater support than centralized decisions.
D. The subordinate sidesteps the immediate supervisor and takes a problem directly to an officer higher in the chain of command.

B. Information is centralized for decision-making.

Which plan type is defined as:

_____ - Focus on how objectives will be accomplished as opposed to strategic plans that focus on what the organization will do. These plans are concerned with those factors that are within the control of the organization, objective, and fact based while strategic plans are subjective.

A. Standing plans.
B. Single-use plans.
C. Strategic plans.
D. Operational/administrative plans.
E. Contingency plans.

D. Operational/administrative plans.

Which of the following activities takes place in the "warm zone"?

A. Vehicle extrication is performed.
B. Location of decontamination station.
C. Location of incident command post.
D. Staging area for personnel.

B. Location of decontamination station. [Warm zone]
-----------------------------------------
A. Vehicle extrication is performed. [Hot zone]
C. Location of incident command post. [Cold zone]
D. Staging area for personnel. [Cold zone]

The company officer should apply the situational leadership styles to the group process. The reader is reminded of the four-stage model developed by B.W. Tuckman for creating a cohesive team. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the forming stage of the model?

A. As relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop, and the members begin to see themselves as part of the group.
B. The leadership style is supportive at this stage, outlining the process and establishing the group structure.
C. The members become closer and more cohesive.
D. Company officer must monitor progress in this area as well because team members can develop certain behaviors and attitudes that can work to destroy the team concept.
E. It includes acknowledgment of the group's accomplishments and the participation of individual members. Additionally, it is an opportunity to debrief the group members and determine if any changes in the process should be made.

A. As relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop, and the members begin to see themselves as part of the group. [Forming]
-----------------------------------------
B. The leadership style is supportive at this stage, outlining the process and establishing the group structure. [Storming]
C. The members become closer and more cohesive. [Norming]
D. Company officer must monitor progress in this area as well because team members can develop certain behaviors and attitudes that can work to destroy the team concept. [Performing]
E. It includes acknowledgment of the group's accomplishments and the participation of individual members. Additionally, it is an opportunity to debrief the group members and determine if any changes in the process should be made. [Adjourning]

Behavior Management:

Behavior management can be a difficult skill for a new company officer to master. It is, however, one of the most important skills for an officer to acquire and maintain. Company officers have a number of tools available to help manage the behavior of individual unit members:

_____ - Assigning a more experienced member to work with the new member who is having difficulty becoming part of the group or learning the required duties.

A. Providing peer assistance.
B. Mentoring.
C. Counseling.
D. Coaching.

A. Providing peer assistance.

Behavior management can be a difficult skill for a new company officer to master. It is, however, one of the most important skills for an officer to acquire and maintain. Company officers have a number of tools available to help manage the behavior of individual unit members. One of the ways to assist their subordinates in reaching their full potential is counseling. Counseling is:
A. A process that involves having members of the unit assist each other in learning teamwork or perfecting new skills.
B. A process that places a new subordinate under the guidance of a more experienced professional who acts as a tutor, guide, and motivator.
C. A process of giving motivational correction, positive reinforcement, and constructive feedback to subordinates in order to maintain and improve their performance.
D. A process to help individuals adjust to certain situations and a means of either reinforcing correct behavior or eliminating improper behavior.

D. A process to help individuals adjust to certain situations and a means of either reinforcing correct behavior or eliminating improper behavior. [Counseling]
-----------------------------------------
A. A process that involves having members of the unit assist each other in learning teamwork or perfecting new skills. [Providing peer assistance]
B. A process that places a new subordinate under the guidance of a more experienced professional who acts as a tutor, guide, and motivator. [Mentoring]
C. A process of giving motivational correction, positive reinforcement, and constructive feedback to subordinates in order to maintain and improve their performance. [Coaching]

When risks have been prioritized, it is time to apply risk control, including risk avoidance, risk transfer, and risk control measures. A risk control measures:

A. Include a policy prohibiting smoking by organization candidates when they are hired.
B. Safety, health, and wellness programs, ongoing training and education programs, and well-defined standard operating procedures or guidelines.
C. Contracting the cleanup and disposal of hazardous waste.
D. Purchase of insurance transfers financial risk only and does nothing to affect the likelihood or occurrence.

B. Safety, health, and wellness programs, ongoing training and education programs, and well-defined standard operating procedures or guidelines. [Control measures]
-----------------------------------------
A. Include a policy prohibiting smoking by organization candidates when they are hired. [Risk avoidance]
C. Contracting the cleanup and disposal of hazardous waste. [Risk transfer]
D. Purchase of insurance transfers financial risk only and does nothing to affect the likelihood or occurrence. [Risk transfer]

There are a number of state agencies which are involved in various aspects of fire protection. Which of the following statements is true regarding a state agency?

A. The fire marshal's office conducts fire and emergency services training and certification programs.
B. The fire commission may assist with arson investigations.
C. The Environmental Protection Agency, in addition to serving in inspection, enforcement, and training roles, personnel from these agencies often assist in the development of response plans and frequently deployed to incident sites to support local response efforts.
D. State police advised legislature on fire and life safety related legislation.

C. The Environmental Protection Agency, in addition to serving in inspection, enforcement, and training roles, personnel from these agencies often assist in the development of response plans and frequently deployed to incident sites to support local response efforts. [TRUE]
-----------------------------------------
A. "The fire marshal's office" conducts fire and emergency services training and certification programs. [FALSE - The Fire Commission]
B. "The fire commission" may assist with arson investigations. [FALSE - State Police]
D. "State police" advised legislature on fire and life safety related legislation. [FALSE - Fire Marshal]

Budget-Development Process:

In general, six steps are involved in the budget process.
Budget _____ -Once the budget has been approved, management now have the funds with which to turn the vision reflected in the budget into reality.
-Company officers should take this opportunity to meet with subordinates to review the budget and explain what it means to the project and organization's operation.

A. Planning.
B. Preparation.
C. Implementation.
D. Monitoring.
E. Evaluating.
F. Revising.

C. Budget Implementation.

The behavioral theory of leadership was developed in the 1940s and includes several styles in theory's. The _____ was developed in the 1950s and is based on the belief that there is no single best leadership style. Application of this theory requires that the situation be matched to the leadership style.

A. Theory Z.
B. Contingency leadership.
C. Theory Y.
D. Laissez-faire leadership style.

B. Contingency leadership.

Theories:

_____ - this theory of leadership was developed in the 1940s and include several styles of theories, including, among others, the following: Basic leadership style; Two-dimensional leadership styles; Contingency leadership theory; Contemporary leadership styles; Theory X; Theory Y; Theory Z

A. Behavioral leadership theory.
B. Leadership continuum theory.
C. Path-goal theory.
D. Results based theory.

A. Behavioral leadership theory.

The "behavioral theory of leadership" was developed in the 1940s and and includes several styles and theories, including, among others, the following:

_____ - Includes autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire categories.

A. Basic leadership style.
B. Two-dimensional leadership styles.
C. Contingency leadership theory.
D. Contemporary leadership styles.
E. Theory X.
F. Theory Y.
G.Theory Z.

A. Basic leadership style.

The "behavioral theory of leadership" was developed in the 1940s and and includes several styles and theories, including, among others, the following:

_____ - Includes job-centered and employee-centered models.

A. Basic leadership style.
B. Two-dimensional leadership styles.
C. Contingency leadership theory.
D. Contemporary leadership styles.
E. Theory X.
F. Theory Y.
G.Theory Z.

B. Two-dimensional leadership styles.

The "behavioral theory of leadership" was developed in the 1940s and and includes several styles and theories, including, among others, the following:

_____ - Believes that no single best style exists.

A. Basic leadership style.
B. Two-dimensional leadership styles.
C. Contingency leadership theory.
D. Contemporary leadership styles.
E. Theory X.
F. Theory Y.
G.Theory Z.

C. Contingency leadership theory.

The "behavioral theory of leadership" was developed in the 1940s and and includes several styles and theories, including, among others, the following:

_____ - Includes charismatic, transformational, transactional, and symbolic theories.

A. Basic leadership style.
B. Two-dimensional leadership styles.
C. Contingency leadership theory.
D. Contemporary leadership styles.
E. Theory X.
F. Theory Y.
G.Theory Z.

D. Contemporary leadership styles.

There are a number of generally accepted decision-making models taught in business management courses. The _____ allows the leader to select the decision that will satisfy the minimal requirements of the situation. This is usually applied to generic decisions that have certain outcomes.

A. Bounded rationality model.
B. Classical model.
C. Rationale model.
D. Contingency model.

A. Bounded rationality model.

Transitional words usually come at the end of one paragraph and then at the beginning of the next paragraph. Some common transitions used at the end of a paragraph to indicate summation include:

A. On the contrary.
B. On the whole.
C. In other words.
D. Consequently.
E. In particular.

B. On the whole. [Similarity]
-----------------------------------------
A. On the contrary. [Contrast or qualification]
C. In other words. [Continuity]
D. Consequently. [Cause and effect]
E. In particular. [Exemplification]

Paragraph Transitions:

Transitional words usually come at the end of one paragraph and then at the beginning of the next paragraph. Some common transitions used at the end of a paragraph to indicate "summation" include... the exception is:

A. After all, all in all, & all things considered.
B. Briefly & by and large.
C. Finally.
D. For example, for instance, in fact
E. In any case, in any event, in brief, in conclusion, in short, in summary, in the final analysis, & in the long run.
F. On balance & on the whole.
G. To sum up & to summarize.

D. For example, for instance, in fact [FALSE - Indicates exemplification]

Paragraph Transitions:

Transitional words usually come at the end of one paragraph and then at the beginning of the next paragraph. Some common transitions that may be used at the start of a paragraph to "Show contrast or qualification" include the following... the exception is:

A. On the contrary
B. However
C. In contrast
D. Still, yet, but
E. Contrarily, notwithstanding
F. Consequently
G. Nevertheless, in spite of
H. On one hand, on the other hand
I. Rather, or, not
J. Conversely
K. At the same time
L. While this may be true

F. Consequently [FALSE - shows cause and effect]

Paragraph Transitions:

Transitional words usually come at the end of one paragraph and then at the beginning of the next paragraph. Some common transitions that may be used at the start of a paragraph to "Indicate continuity" include the following... the exception is:

A. Besides, furthermore, in other words
B. Next, similarity, at first, first of all, to begin with
C. In the first place, at the same time, for now, for the time being
D. On the whole
E. The next step, in time, in turn, later on
F. Meanwhile, then, seeing, in the meantime
G. Later, while, earlier
H. Simultaneously, afterwards

D. On the whole [FALSE - indicates summation]

Paragraph Transitions:

Transitional words usually come at the end of one paragraph and then at the beginning of the next paragraph. Some common transitions that may be used at the start of a paragraph to "Show cause and effect" include the following... the exception is:

A. Thus, consequently, as a result
B. For this reason, so that, with the result that
C. Hence, accordingly, therefore
D. So, because, since, due to
E. In other words, then
F. On the contrary, however, in contrast

F. On the contrary, however, in contrast [FALSE - Shows contrast or qualification]

Paragraph Transitions:

Transitional words usually come at the end of one paragraph and then at the beginning of the next paragraph. Some common transitions that may be used at the start of a paragraph to "Indicate exemplification" include the following... the exception is:

A. Besides, furthermore, in other words
B. For example, for instance, in fact
C. To illustrate, namely, in other words
D. In particular, specifically, such as

A. Besides, furthermore, in other words [FALSE - Indicate continuity]

Line and staff are terms that refer to traditional organizational concepts that separate fire and emergency services personnel into two distinct groups. A typical line function is:

A. Training.
B. Logistics.
C. Emergency medical services [EMS].
D. Personnel administration.

C. Emergency medical services [EMS].

Line and Staff Personnel:

Typical functions of line personnel include... the exception is:

A. Fire suppression.
B. Emergency medical services [EMS].
C. Inspections.
D. Training.
E. Education.
F. Investigations.

D. Training. [FALSE - Staff personnel]

Line and Staff Personnel:

Typical functions of staff personnel include... the exception is:

A. Training.
B. Logistics.
C. Education.
D. Personnel administration.

C. Education. [FALSE - Line personnel]

While there are many ways to enhance and organization's public image, the means most often used by fire and emergency service organizations is public fire and life-safety education. Three of the most effective means of providing fire and life-safety information and enhancing the organization's image through public education are "group presentations", "media programs", and "direct assistance". Example of direct assistance is:

A. Civic groups, service clubs, neighborhood associations, and other organizations are often looking for speakers to address their meetings, and these engagements can provide the company officer with numerous opportunities to make fire and life-safety presentation.
B. This may involve replacing a battery in a smoke detector, recommending the size and type of fire extinguisher for an occupancy, or referring a citizen to an appropriate agency for aid.
C. From a public-relations standpoint, it may be more important that these presentations be made by public-education specialists within the organization in order to maintain consistency in the message.
D. Live and/or prerecorded fire and life-safety messages delivered by fire and emergency services personnel through the various news media should be used frequently to increase public awareness while enhancing the organization's public image.

B. This may involve replacing a battery in a smoke detector, recommending the size and type of fire extinguisher for an occupancy, or referring a citizen to an appropriate agency for aid. [Direct assistance]
-----------------------------------------
A. Civic groups, service clubs, neighborhood associations, and other organizations are often looking for speakers to address their meetings, and these engagements can provide the company officer with numerous opportunities to make fire and life-safety presentation. [Group presentations]
C. From a public-relations standpoint, it may be more important that these presentations be made by public-education specialists within the organization in order to maintain consistency in the message. [Group presentations]
D. Live and/or prerecorded fire and life-safety messages delivered by fire and emergency services personnel through the various news media should be used frequently to increase public awareness while enhancing the organization's public image. [News media programs]

When conflict occurs, it is best to resolve it as soon as possible. The longer the company officer waits to confront a problem, the greater the effort that will be required to find a solution. The first step in conflict resolution is to classify/identify the problem. The second step is to:

A. Determine the right response/appropriate conflict management style.
B. List alternative options.
C. Convert the decision into action.
D. Define/diagnose the problem.

D. Define/diagnose the problem.
-----------------------------------------

Conflict Resolution Steps: [6]

Five of the six steps of conflict resolution are as follows... what is the sixth step:

STEP 1: Classify/identify the problem
STEP 2: Define/diagnose the problem
STEP 3: List alternative options
STEP 4: Determine the right response/appropriate conflict management style
STEP 5: Convert the decision to an action
STEP 6: ________________________

STEP 6: Test the action against the desired outcome

The general purpose of presenting a report is to provide information. Reports may be presented internally when the status of a project or program must be reported to the administration or to various committees for management teams. One step that results in successful reports is:

A. Do not explain how the information that the report is based upon was gathered.
B. Anticipate questions that might arise.
C. Do not provide a written copy of the report to the audience.
D. Tell the general benefits for and effects on the audience.

B. Anticipate questions that might arise. [TRUE]
-----------------------------------------
A. Do "not" explain how the information that the report is based upon was gathered. [FALSE]
C. Do "not" provide a written copy of the report to the audience. [FALSE]
D. Tell the "general" benefits for and effects on the audience. [FALSE - Specific]

Report Presentations:

Generally, steps that result in successful reports are as follows [6 steps]... the exception is:

A. STEP 1 - Make an immediate statement of purpose
B. STEP 2 - Explain how the information that the report is based upon was gathered
C. STEP 3 - Present possible solutions to the situation
D. STEP 4 - Tell the "specific" benefits for and effects on the audience
E. STEP 5 - Anticipate any objections or questions that might arise
F. STEP 6 - Do not provide a written copy of the report to the audience

F. STEP 6 - "Do not" provide a written copy of the report to the audience [FALSE - Provide one]

Contract Content:

Labor unions and the fire and emergency services organization regularly enter into negotiations to establish contracts between the two. Labor/management agreements usually have a number of sections that address the five areas: "Routine clauses" can be defined as:

A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments.
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative.
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address.
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance.
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts.

A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments. [Routine clauses]
________________________________
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative. [Clauses affecting labor union security]
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address. [Clauses describing the rights and prerogatives of management]
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance. [Sections that describe how the department/ organization will handle employee grievances]
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts. [Sections that list the conditions of employment]

Contract Content:

Labor unions and the fire and emergency services organization regularly enter into negotiations to establish contracts between the two. Labor/management agreements usually have a number of sections that address the five areas: "Clauses describing the rights and prerogatives of management" can be defined as:

A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments.
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative.
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address.
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance.
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts.

C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address. [Clauses describing the rights and prerogatives of management]
________________________________
A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments. [Routine clauses]
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative. [Clauses affecting labor union security]
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance. [Sections that describe how the department/ organization will handle employee grievances]
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts. [Sections that list the conditions of employment]

Contract Content:

Labor unions and the fire and emergency services organization regularly enter into negotiations to establish contracts between the two. Labor/management agreements usually have a number of sections that address the five areas: "Sections that list the conditions of employment" can be defined as:

A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments.
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative.
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address.
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance.
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts.

E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts. [Sections that list the conditions of employment]
________________________________
A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments. [Routine clauses]
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative. [Clauses affecting labor union security]
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address. [Clauses describing the rights and prerogatives of management]
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance. [Sections that describe how the department/ organization will handle employee grievances]

Contract Content:

Labor unions and the fire and emergency services organization regularly enter into negotiations to establish contracts between the two. Labor/management agreements usually have a number of sections that address the five areas: "Sections that describe how the department/organization will handle employee grievances" can be defined as:

A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments.
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative.
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address.
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance.
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts.

D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance. [Sections that describe how the department/ organization will handle employee grievances]
________________________________
A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments. [Routine clauses]
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative. [Clauses affecting labor union security]
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address. [Clauses describing the rights and prerogatives of management]
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts. [Sections that list the conditions of employment]

Contract Content:

Labor unions and the fire and emergency services organization regularly enter into negotiations to establish contracts between the two. Labor/management agreements usually have a number of sections that address the five areas: "Clauses affecting labor union security" can be defined as:

A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments.
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative.
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address.
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance.
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts.

B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative. [Clauses affecting labor union security]
________________________________
A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments. [Routine clauses]
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address. [Clauses describing the rights and prerogatives of management]
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance. [Sections that describe how the department/ organization will handle employee grievances]
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts. [Sections that list the conditions of employment]

Behavior management can be a difficult skill for a new company officer to master. It is, however, one of the most important skills for a company officer to acquire and maintain. Company offers have a number of tools available to help manage the behavior of individual unit members. The tool described as: "A process that involves having members of a union assist each other and learning teamwork or perfecting new skills. Some subordinates, in particular
Members, are intimidated or free to perform in front of the company officer until they feel confident in their abilities."

A. Counseling.
B. Coaching.
C. Providing peer assistance.
D. Mentoring.

C. Providing peer assistance.

In general, two types of budgets are used by public organizations: capital budgets and operating budgets. The largest single item in the operating budget of most career organizations is:

A. Fire apparatus.
B. Hose.
C. Salaries and benefits.
D. Self-contained breathing apparatus.

C. Salaries and benefits.

When a trend appears that indicates that an account lacks sufficient funds to last the remainder of the fiscal year, the officer will have to determine the best option to address the problem. The preferred option is to:

A. Restrict further purchases from the account to an amount that can be evenly spread over the remainder of the year.
B. Request a budget adjustment from the jurisdiction.
C. Do nothing while continuing to monitor the account until it is empty or the trend ceases.
D. Transfer funds from an underutilized account while maintaining a balanced total in the budget.

D. Transfer funds from an underutilized account while maintaining a balanced total in the budget. [Best option]
-----------------------------------------
A. Restrict further purchases from the account to an amount that can be evenly spread over the remainder of the year. [2nd best option]
B. Request a budget adjustment from the jurisdiction. [3rd best option]
C. Do nothing while continuing to monitor the account until it is empty or the trend ceases. [Worst option]

Data Collection:

The Post Incident Analysis [PIA] is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provides background information on the structure, facility, or occupancy [if available]." is known as:

A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan [IAP].
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.

B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.

[ *** Practice Exam Question *** ]

Data Collection:

The Post Incident Analysis [PIA] is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provides information on the structure, facility, occupancy, or location based on the impressions of the first-arriving company officer and crew." is known as:

A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan [IAP].
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.

C. Size-up

[ *** Practice Exam Question *** ]

Data Collection:

The Post Incident Analysis [PIA] is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provides information on the actions that were taken to mitigate the incident. These actions may or may not have actually occurred." is known as:

A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan [IAP].
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.

E. Incident Action Plan [IAP].

Data Collection:

The Post Incident Analysis [PIA] is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provide a detailed view of the activities of each of the ICS functions during the incident." is known as:

A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan [IAP].
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.

D. Command and general staff records.

[ *** Practice Exam Question *** ]

Data Collection:

The Post Incident Analysis [PIA] is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provide information on the assistance provided by other agencies." is known as:

A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan [IAP].
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.

F. Outside agency reports.

Data Collection:

The Post Incident Analysis [PIA] is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provides a visual aid in placing the responding units and personnel as well as casualties and occupants." is known as:

A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan [IAP].
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.

A. Site plan.

[*** Practice Exam Question ***]

Data Collection:

The Post Incident Analysis [PIA] is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provides an accurate record of the participants and their time of arrival and release from the incident." is known as:

A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan [IAP].
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.

I. Personal accountability system.

Data Collection:

The Post Incident Analysis [PIA] is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provide accurate dispatch times and transcripts of radio communications at the incident." is known as:

A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan [IAP].
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.

K. Communication records.

Data Collection:

The Post Incident Analysis [PIA] is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provide additional information that may be of value, such as apparatus or equipment maintenance records of vehicles or equipment that may have broken down during the incident." is known as:

A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan [IAP].
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.

L. Miscellaneous reports.

Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Collects injury and fatality statistics from fire and emergency services, compiled information, and issues an annual report based on the results" is:

A. National Fire Protection Association [NFPA].
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health [NIOSH].
C. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
D. National Fire Academy [NFA].

A. National Fire Protection Association [NFPA].

Risk Identification:

Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Provides statistics on illnesses and injuries that have been reported nationally and issues warnings on potential trends that may affect the health of the nation." is:

A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention [CDC].
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health [NIOSH].
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association [FDSOA].
D. National Fire Protection Association [NFPA].
E. National Fire Academy [NFA].
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.

A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention [CDC].

Risk Identification:

Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Investigates fire and emergency responder fatalities; issues an evaluation of each incident and a list of recommendations for preventing a recurrence of the incident." is:

A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention [CDC].
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health [NIOSH].
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association [FDSOA].
D. National Fire Protection Association [NFPA].
E. National Fire Academy [NFA].
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.

B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health [NIOSH]

Risk Identification:

Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Professional organization that promotes safety in the fire and emergency services. Information is available on all aspects of safety activities." is:

A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention [CDC].
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health [NIOSH].
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association [FDSOA].
D. National Fire Protection Association [NFPA].
E. National Fire Academy [NFA].
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.

C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association [FASOA].

Risk Identification:

Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Collects injury and fatality statistics from fire and emergency services, compiles the information, and issues and annual report based on the results." is:

A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention [CDC].
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health [NIOSH].
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association [FDSOA].
D. National Fire Protection Association [NFPA].
E. National Fire Academy [NFA].
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.

D. National Fire Protection Association [NFPA].

Risk Identification:

Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Maintains data on safety, health, and wellness initiatives based on the annual statistics." is:

A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention [CDC].
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health [NIOSH].
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association [FDSOA].
D. National Fire Protection Association [NFPA].
E. National Fire Academy [NFA].
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.

E. National Fire Academy [NFA].

Risk Identification:

Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Tracks and maintains information on line-of-duty deaths and provides support to survivors and family members." is:

A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention [CDC].
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health [NIOSH].
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association [FDSOA].
D. National Fire Protection Association [NFPA].
E. National Fire Academy [NFA].
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.

F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.

Risk Identification:

Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Sponsored jointly by the IAFF, IAFC, and the VCOS, this initiative collects, compiles, and provides reports on incidents that are defined as- an unintentional, unsafe occurrence that could have resulted in an injury, fatality, or property damage. This is a voluntary reporting system that provides information on the types of incidents that are not reported to other organizations." is:

A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention [CDC].
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health [NIOSH].
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association [FDSOA].
D. National Fire Protection Association [NFPA].
E. National Fire Academy [NFA].
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.

G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.

Risk Identification:

Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Web-based sources of information on near tragic incidents reported to these sites. Many include photos or videos of the incident and can be used as training aids." is:

A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention [CDC].
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health [NIOSH].
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association [FDSOA].
D. National Fire Protection Association [NFPA].
E. National Fire Academy [NFA].
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.

H. Close Calls.Com.

[FirefighterCloseCalls.Com & EMSCloseCalls.Com]

The company officer should review these rules and apply them with special regard to the company officer's role in the fire service. Which one of the following is an exemption to these "six" rules:

A. Learn and be sincerely interested in and dedicated to your job.
B. Be loyal to the department and to your coworkers.
C. Be cautious. Guard your speech while on duty.
D. Lead by example
E. Support all types of education and training.
F. Accept criticism graciously and accept praise, honors, and advancement modestly.
G. Praise in public; discipline in private.

C. Be cautious. Guard your speech while on duty. [FALSE]
-----------------------------------------
Would be correctly stated as follows:
Guard conversations -Never say anything, both on and off the job, that would bring dishonor onto a person, a position, or an organization.
Do not disclose information that is confidential, and particular information concerning subordinates. Consider information confidential unless told otherwise.

Research indicates that the public has greater contact with members of local government than with any other government level. The company officer and members of the unit are the first direct contact the public will have with the fire and emergency services of a local government. The company officer may interact with the public by providing services such as... the exception is:

A. Issuing burning permits.
B. Inspecting facilities.
C. Providing public fire and life-safety education.
D. Investigating suspicious fires.
E. Providing emergency care to victims of hazardous incidents.
F. Gives advice.

F. Gives advice. [FALSE]

P.15

Span of control is the number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise. There is no absolute rule for determining how many subordinates that one person effectively can't supervise; the number varies with the situation but is usually considered to be somewhere between _____ .

A. 2-6
B. 1-5
C. 3-7
D. 5-9

C. 3-7 [with the optimal being 5]

A critical issue in negligence liability is the care with which the company officer's responsibilities are discharged. Sources of information that helps to establish the standard of care include... the exception is:

A. Gravity of harm posed by the condition.
B. Agency directives and policies.
C. Directives of a superior agency [legal mandates].
D. Guidelines and policies of other agencies [locally accepted practices].
E. Guidelines and standards developed by professional organizations [such as NFPA].
F. Professional text and manuals [such as IFSTA manuals].
G. Professional journals; Research publications
H. Opinions of expert witnesses.

A. Gravity of harm posed by the condition. [FALSE]
-----------------------------------------
B. through H. are all TRUE, p.104

The communication process exists in many forms but all communication accomplishes the tasks of exchanging information. Regardless of the form used, the communication process is comprised of five essential elements. An exception is:

A. The sender.
B. The actual message.
C. From where the message is transmitted.
D. The receiver.
E. The medium/channel.
F. The feedback.

C. From where the message is transmitted. [FALSE]
-----------------------------------------
The rest are TRUE, p.124

Research into the relationship of formal and informal groups has brought to light two important facts.
#1] Informal groups from within all formal groups.
#2] The formal group may have greater influence on the productivity and success of the group than any other factor.

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.

A. #1 is true.
-----------------------------------------
#1] Informal groups from within all formal groups. [TRUE]
#2] The "formal" group may have greater influence on the productivity and success of the group than any other factor. [FALSE - informal]

As first-level supervisors for a group of employees, Level 1 Fire Officers must be able to perform the following duties involving human resource management... the exception is:

A. Assign tasks.
B. Prepare projects and divisional budgets.
C. Evaluate personal performance.
D. Provide company-level training.
E. Provide effective supervision for both emergency and nonemergency activities.
F. Administer policies and procedures efficiently and equitably.
G. Recommend actions when situations exceed their authority or ability.
H. Act as a project manager in certain situations.
I. Provide professional development opportunities for members.
J. Initiate or assist with personal transfers, personal benefits, change in those benefits, awards and commendations, disciplinary actions, and labor/management issues [including grievances].

B. Prepare projects and divisional budgets. [FALSE - Level 2]
________________________________
The rest are the examples for Level 1 Fire Officers p.23]

In addition to the Level I duties, the Level II Fire Officer must also perform the following human resource management duties... the exception is:

A. Evaluate personal performance and ensure that employees perform to the best of their abilities.
B. Prepare projects and divisional budgets.
C. Assign tasks.
D. Provide punitive discipline.

D. Provide punitive discipline. [FASE]
________________________________
A. Evaluate personal performance and ensure that employees perform to the best of their abilities. [Level 2]
B. Prepare projects and divisional budgets. [Level 2]
C. Assign tasks. [Level 1]

The company officer must be able to recognize the difference between a leader and a manager. Sarah White has articulated one version of the difference in an article in a professional pharmacists journal. The following statements are FALSE... the exception is:

A. Managers ask how and when; leaders ask what and why.
B. Managers ensure that the right things are done, leaders ensure that things are done right.
C. Managers challenge the status quo, leaders accept the status quo.
D. Managers are originals, leaders are copies.

A. Managers ask how and when; leaders ask what and why. [TRUE]
-----------------------------------------

The company officer must be able to recognize the difference between a leader and a manager. Sarah White has articulated one version of the difference in an article in a professional pharmacists journal. She states differences as follows... the exception is:

A. Managers administer; leaders innovate.
B. Managers ask how and when; leaders ask what and why.
C. Managers focus on systems; leaders focus on people.
D. Managers ensure that things are done right; leaders ensure that the right things are done.
E. Managers maintain; leaders develop.
F. Managers rely on control; leaders inspire trust.
G. Managers have a short-term perspective; leaders have a long-term perspective.
H. Managers accept the status quo; leaders challenge the status quo.
I. Managers have an eye on the bottom line; leaders have an eye on the horizon.
J. Managers are the classic good soldiers; leaders are their own people.
K. Managers are originals; leaders are copies.

K. Managers are "originals"; leaders are "copies". [FALSE - Managers are copies; leaders are originals.]
-----------------------------------------
The rest are TRUE p.47

According to Webster, power is the "possession of control, authority, or influence over others". According to psychologist John French and Bertram Raven there are five types of power, they are... the exception is:

A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Official power.
D. Identification power.
E. Expert power.
F. Legitimate power.

C. Official power. [FALSE]
-----------------------------------------
The others are all TRUE p.47

A company officer guides the group I journey from disjointed individuals to a cohesive team. According to research by B.W. Tuckman, that journey can be illustrated with a basic four-stage development model. Consider these two statements:
#1] Storming is defined as "The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts and it hears too."
#2] Performing is defined as "The supervisor works to maintain team spirit as the group moves towards accomplishing its objectives."

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.

B. #2 is true.
-----------------------------------------
#1] Storming is defined as "The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts and it hears too." [FALSE - Norming]

Ethics and ethical behavior are learned traits. They are transmitted to an individual from many sources. The primary source is the family, which instills personal values and morals. Other sources are organized religions, educational institutions, society and peers. The values instilled by these sources remain with individual for life unless the person consciously alters them. Examples of ethical values include... the exception is:

A. Honesty.
B. Fairness.
C. Mortality.
D. Consistency.
E. Integrity.
F. Impartiality.
G. Loyalty.
H. Dedication.
I. Responsibility.
J. Accountability.
K. Perseverance.
L. Frugality.
M. Faithfulness.
N. Heroism.
O. Patriotism.

D. Consistency. [FALSE]
-----------------------------------------
The rest are TRUE p.79

Making decisions can be difficult because the barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are psychological [internal] while others are generated by organizational culture [external]. The following are psychological [internal] barriers... the exception is:

A. Fear
B. Ego or self-esteem
C. Indecisiveness
D. Distrust
E. Antagonism
F. Jealousy
G. Unethical motives
H. Lack of commitment

H. Lack of commitment [FALSE - Organizational "external" barrier]

Making decisions can be difficult because the barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are psychological [internal] while others are generated by organizational culture [external]. The following are organizational [external] barriers... the exception is:

A. Lack of data
B. Lack of accurate analysis
C. Lack of resources
D. Lack of management/ membership support
E. Lack of commitment
F. Lack of capacity
G. Lack of trust

G. Lack of trust [FALSE - Psychological "internal" barrier]

In everyday conversation, the terms hazard and risk are often used interchangeably. Technically, however, hazards and risks describe two different things.
#1] The term risk usually refers to the source of a hazard.
#2] A hazard is the likelihood of suffering harm from a risk.

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.

D. #1 and #2 are false.
-----------------------------------------
#1] The term HAZARD usually refers to the source of a RISK.
#2] A RISK is the likelihood of suffering harm from a HAZARD.

The generally accepted basic classification of plans is based on the frequency with which they are used. Therefore, two broad categories can be established standing plans and single use plans. Consider the following statements regarding operational/administrative plans, and strategic plans:

#1] Operational plans focus on "what" objectives will be accomplished as opposed to strategic plans that focus on "how" the organization will do.
#2] Administrative plans are concerned with those factors that are within the control of the organization, "subjective" and fact based, while strategic plans are "objective".

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.

D. #1 and #2 are false.
-----------------------------------------
#1] Operational plans focus on HOW objectives will be accomplished as opposed to strategic plans that focus on WHAT the organization will do.
the organization will do.
#2] Administrative plans are concerned with those factors that are within the control of the organization, OBJECTIVE and fact based, while strategic plans are SUBJECTIVE.

p.286

Arbitration - Arbitrators hear evidence from both sides in the dispute and determine a binding solution. Neither management nor labor particularly likes the procedure because it takes the final decision out of their control, but state laws or municipal charters or ordinance sometimes require this. Generally there are three types of arbitration: Final offer arbitration; Single arbitrator or panel; Strike-off procedure.

_____ : Involves each side offering what is supposed to be its most generous offer on each issue to be resolved. The arbitrator must choose one of the offers on each issue without compromise. The procedure theoretically forces each side to make realistic proposals while coming close to what its final offer on each issue would be.

A. Final offer arbitration.
B. Single arbitrator or panel.
C. Strike-off procedure.

A. Final offer arbitration.

Arbitration - Arbitrators hear evidence from both sides in the dispute and determine a binding solution. Neither management nor labor particularly likes the procedure because it takes the final decision out of their control, but state laws or municipal charters or ordinance sometimes require this. Generally there are three types of arbitration: Final offer arbitration; Single arbitrator or panel; Strike-off procedure.

_____ : Both sides usually choose names from a list supplied by a professional organization such as the American Arbitration Association.

A. Final offer arbitration.
B. Single arbitrator or panel.
C. Strike-off procedure.

B. Single arbitrator or panel.

Understanding the composition of the community requires a basic knowledge of demographics: results of a statistically-based study of the population. Population is categorized into groups based on physical, social, or economic characteristics such as... the exception is:

A. Age.
B. Politics.
C. Marital status.
D. Occupation.
E. Family size.
F. Education.
G. Geographic location.

B. Politics. [FALSE]

The rest are TRUE p.331

In general, there are two types of budgets used by public entities; capital budgets and operating budgets.
#1] Operating budgets cover major purchases; items that cost more than a certain specified amount of money and are expected to last more than one year, usually three or more years.
#2] Capital budgets are used to pay for the reoccurring expenses of the day-to-day operation of the department. The largest single item in the capital budget of most career fire departments is the cost of personnel; salaries and benefits.

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.

D. #1 and #2 are false.
-----------------------------------------
#1] CAPITAL budgets cover major purchases; items that cost more than a certain specified amount of money and are expected to last more than one year, usually three or more years.
#2] OPERATING budgets are used to pay for the reoccurring expenses of the day-to-day operation of the department. The largest single item in the capital budget of most career fire departments is the cost of personnel; salaries and benefits.

NFPA 101 Life Safety Code further classifies every individual occupancy according to the relative fire hazard of its contents. There are three contents-hazard classifications... the exception is:

A. Low hazard.
B. Moderate hazard.
C. Ordinary hazard.
D. High hazard.

B. Moderate hazard. [FALSE]

The first priority of the facility survey is to identify life safety concerns. Life safety information is collected in two basic areas: protection and evacuation of occupants; and protection of the firefighters. Information about occupant protection includes the following... the exception is:

A. Location and size of the exits and entrances.
B. Location of escalators and elevators.
C. Unsupported partitions or walls.
D. Location of windows suitable for rescue access.
E. Special evacuation considerations for disabled occupants, very old or very young occupants, and large numbers of occupants.
F. Locations of areas of safe refuge.
G. Flammable and toxic interior finishes or processes.

C. Unsupported partitions or walls. [FALSE]

While making a preincident survey, firefighters gather information about occupant life-safety and also record the information about hazards in the building that will threaten their own safety. Some of the fire hazards to be aware of are... the exception is:

A. Toxic chemicals.
B. Explosives.
C. Location and size of exits.
D. Reactive metals.
E. Flammable and combustible liquids.
F. Biological hazards.
G. Radioactive materials.
H. Manufacturing processes that are inherently dangerous.

C. Location and size of exits. [FALSE - Occupant protection]

The objectives of incident scene management should always reflect the overall incident objectives. Therefore, the objectives of incident scene management are... the exception is:

A. Life safety.
B. Fire extinguishment.
C. Incident stabilization.
D. Property conservation.

B. Fire extinguishment. [FALSE]

To separate the problem from the feelings, officers must know why people complain. Basically, people complain because they perceive a problem that adversely affects them. Firefighters complain for four basic reasons….The exception is:

A. To bring out change.
B. To release pressure.
C. To divert attention from themselves.
D. To confront personality conflicts.

C. To divert attention from themselves. [False]

[Write down the 4th reason if found in book]

The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action that would be used to "sell" the issue would be described as:

A. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
B. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
C. Desires some member participation such as duty assignment.
D. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.

B. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy. [Sell]
________________________________
Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest.

The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as: "Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement." is:

A. Tell.
B. Sell.
C. Consult.
D. Share.

A. Tell.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.

The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as: "Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest." is:

A. Tell.
B. Sell.
C. Consult.
D. Share.

B. Sell.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.

The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as: "Presents ideas to members and invite their questions." is:

A. Tell.
B. Sell.
C. Consult.
D. Share.

C. Consult.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.

The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as: "Presents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change." is:

A. Tell.
B. Sell.
C. Consult.
D. Share.

C. Consult.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.

The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as: "Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation." is:

A. Tell.
B. Sell.
C. Consult.
D. Share.

C. Consult.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.

The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as: "Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision." is:

A. Tell.
B. Sell.
C. Consult.
D. Share.

D. Share.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.

The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as: "Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference" is:

A. Tell.
B. Sell.
C. Consult.
D. Share.

D. Share.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.

The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as _____ requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.

A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing.

D. Sharing.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.

The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as _____ uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.

A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing.

D. Sharing.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.

The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as _____ allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.

A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing.

C. Consulting.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.

The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as _____ desires some member participation such as duty assignment.

A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing.

C. Consulting.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.

The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as _____ clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.

A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing.

C. Consulting.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.

The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as _____ works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.

A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing.

B. Selling.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.

The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style [ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership] a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as _____ applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.

A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing.

A. Telling.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.

Command presence is the complex ability to identify the components of situation, assess the need for action, determine nature of the necessary intervention, and initiate the action - and also to be perceived as having the ability necessary to take this action. Along with these six personality characteristics, leaders can take the following eight steps to create command presence. The first step is to know what the situation is, the second step is:

A. To know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
B. To know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation.
C. To take responsibility for the decision.
D. To implement the decision.

A. To know what resources are available to apply to the situation. [2nd step]
________________________________
Step 1: Know what the situation is.
Step 2: Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
Step 3: Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation.
Step 4: Listen to all points of view.
Step 5: Make the decision.
Step 6: Take responsibility for the decision.
Step 7: Implement the decision.
Step 8: Evaluate the decision.

Leaders can take the eight steps to create command presence. The 1st & 2nd steps would be:

A. Know what the situation is ; Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
B. Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation ; Listen to all points of view.
C. Make the decision ; Take responsibility for the decision.
D. Implement the decision ; Evaluate the decision.

A. Know what the situation is ; Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
________________________________
Step 1: Know what the situation is.
Step 2: Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
Step 3: Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation.
Step 4: Listen to all points of view.
Step 5: Make the decision.
Step 6: Take responsibility for the decision.
Step 7: Implement the decision.
Step 8: Evaluate the decision.

Leaders can take the eight steps to create command presence. The 3rd & 4th steps would be:

A. Know what the situation is ; Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
B. Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation ; Listen to all points of view.
C. Make the decision ; Take responsibility for the decision.
D. Implement the decision ; Evaluate the decision.

B. Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation ; Listen to all points of view.
________________________________
Step 1: Know what the situation is.
Step 2: Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
Step 3: Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation.
Step 4: Listen to all points of view.
Step 5: Make the decision.
Step 6: Take responsibility for the decision.
Step 7: Implement the decision.
Step 8: Evaluate the decision.

Leaders can take the eight steps to create command presence. The 5th & 6th steps would be:

A. Know what the situation is ; Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
B. Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation ; Listen to all points of view.
C. Make the decision ; Take responsibility for the decision.
D. Implement the decision ; Evaluate the decision.

C. Make the decision ; Take responsibility for the decision.
________________________________
Step 1: Know what the situation is.
Step 2: Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
Step 3: Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation.
Step 4: Listen to all points of view.
Step 5: Make the decision.
Step 6: Take responsibility for the decision.
Step 7: Implement the decision.
Step 8: Evaluate the decision.

Leaders can take the eight steps to create command presence. The 7th & 8th steps would be:

A. Know what the situation is ; Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
B. Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation ; Listen to all points of view.
C. Make the decision ; Take responsibility for the decision.
D. Implement the decision ; Evaluate the decision.

D. Implement the decision ; Evaluate the decision.
________________________________
Step 1: Know what the situation is.
Step 2: Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
Step 3: Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation.
Step 4: Listen to all points of view.
Step 5: Make the decision.
Step 6: Take responsibility for the decision.
Step 7: Implement the decision.
Step 8: Evaluate the decision.

Essential to meeting all challenges is the establishment of priorities. The company officer's priorities are based primarily on the mission statement of the organization. In the fire and emergency services. In order to for the company officer to meet his/her priorities, he/she should consider the following preparation activity. _____ is described as: "Included in this category are the completion of reports and records, station maintenance, and other administrative duties assigned to the office".

A. Mental preparation for emergency response.
B. Direct preparation for emergency response.
C. Application of efficient organizational skills.
D. Mental preparation for nonemergency activities.

C. Application of efficient organizational skills.

Essential to meeting all challenges is the establishment of priorities. The company officer's priorities are based primarily on the mission statement of the organization. In the fire and emergency services. In order to for the company officer to meet his/her priorities, he/she should consider the following preparation activity. _____ is described as: "The company officer and members of the unit must be mentally and emotionally prepared to respond to any type of emergency situation at anytime during their work shift."

A. Mental preparation for emergency response.
B. Direct preparation for emergency response.
C. Application of efficient organizational skills.
D. Mental preparation for nonemergency activities.

A. Mental preparation for emergency response.

Essential to meeting all challenges is the establishment of priorities. The company officer's priorities are based primarily on the mission statement of the organization. In the fire and emergency services. In order to for the company officer to meet his/her priorities, he/she should consider the following preparation activity. _____ is described as: "These activities include training and drilling as a team, preparing the apparatus, obtaining personal protective equipment [PPE] and tools with which to respond, and developing preincident plans for occupancies and hazards within the response area."

A. Mental preparation for emergency response.
B. Direct preparation for emergency response.
C. Application of efficient organizational skills.
D. Mental preparation for nonemergency activities.

B. Direct preparation for emergency response.

Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are internal, others are external. External barriers that exist outside the individual maybe created by how a situation is organized. The external barrier that is described as: "Every effort must be made to look at the total picture of the incident or problem based on all available information to determine the correct relationship of the various parts" is known as:

A. Lack of data.
B. Lack of accurate analysis.
C. Lack of resources.
D. Lack of management/ membership support.
E. Lack of commitment.
F. Lack of capacity.

B. Lack of accurate analysis.

Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are internal, others are external. External barriers that exist outside the individual maybe created by how a situation is organized. The external barrier that is described as: "Dooms decisions to failure from the start. Lack of _____ will simply result in a good intention that does not become an action." is known as:

A. Lack of data.
B. Lack of accurate analysis.
C. Lack of resources.
D. Lack of management/ membership support.
E. Lack of commitment.
F. Lack of capacity.

D. Lack of management/ membership support.

The message is the meaning, idea, or concept that a speaker is attempting to communicate to the listener/receiver. While most people think of a message as the spoken word, it actually consists of nonverbal factors as well. The message maybe transmitted by auditory, visual, tactical, olfactory, gustatory, gestural or any combination of these means. Speech communications research indicate that the following components listed in the descending order of message percentage are:

A. Verbal, Kinesics, Vocal tones/ inflections.
B. Kinesics, Verbal, Vocal tones/ inflections.
C. Vocal tones/ inflections, Kinesics, Verbal.
D. Kinesics, Vocal tones/ inflections, Verbal.

D. Kinesics, Vocal tones/ inflections, Verbal.
________________________________
Kinesics = 55%
Vocal tones/ inflections = 38%
Verbal = 7%

The two leading causes of emergency scene fatalities to firefighters are the result of _____ and heart attacks resulting from physical stress.

A. Motor vehicle accidents.
B. Burns.
C. Stroke.
D. Asphyxiation.

A. Motor vehicle accidents.

_____ is the leading cause of firefighter fatalities.

A. Cardiac arrest.
B. Heart attacks.
C. Strokes.
D. Motor vehicle accidents.
E. Traumatic injury.
F. Asphyxiation.
G. Burns.
H. Cancer.

A. Cardiac arrest.
________________________________
A. Cardiac arrest. [Leading cause of FF "death"]
B. Heart attacks. [Leading cause of FF "injury" w stroke and training related death]
C. Strokes. [Leading cause of FF "injury" with heart-attack]
D. Motor vehicle accidents. [Leading cause of on scene FF death with heart-attack]
E. Traumatic injury. [2nd leading cause of training death behind heart-attack]
F. Asphyxiation. [N/A]
G. Burns. [N/A]
H. Cancer. [N/A]

Cardiac arrest is the leading cause of firefighter fatalities, while overexertion or stress that results in _____ and _____ is the leading cause the firefighter "injury".

[2 answers:]
A. Cardiac arrest.
B. Heart attacks.
C. Strokes.
D. Motor vehicle accidents.
E. Traumatic injury.
F. Asphyxiation.
G. Burns.
H. Cancer.

B. Heart attacks.
&
C. Strokes.

The accident, injury, illness, and fatality statistics that are used to analyze accidents and determine trends are only as accurate as the original information that is gathered by investigating company officers. In conducting an investigation, company officers collect basic information about the participants, event, or incident. Which of the following answer choices contain general information?

A. Personal protective clothing or equipment in use.
B. Date and time of incident.
C. Age and condition of apparatus/equipment.
D. Weather and temperature.

B. Date and time of incident. [General information]
________________________________
A. Personal protective clothing or equipment in use. [Employee characteristics - participant]
C. Age and condition of apparatus/equipment. [Apparatus/equipment information]
D. Weather and temperature. [Environmental information]

The accident, injury, illness, and fatality statistics that are used to analyze accidents and determine trends are only as accurate as the original information that is gathered by investigating company officers. In conducting an investigation, company officers collect basic information about the participants, event, or incident. The investigation should provide the following information... the exception is:

A. General information.
B. Employee characteristics - participant.
C. Environmental information.
D. Apparatus/equipment information.
E. Human factors.

E. Human factors. [FALSE]

Company officers must know the types of plans used by the organization, how the planning process works, and how to apply it at the company or unit level, and the process for altering existing plans. ______ is described as: "Focus on HOW objectives will be accomplished as opposed to strategic plans that focus on WHAT the organization will do. ______ are concerned with those factors that are within the control of the organization, objective, and fact based while strategic plans are subjective."

A. Strategic plans.
B. Operational/Administrative plans.
C. Contingency plans.
D. Standing plans.
E. Single-use plans.

B. Operational/Administrative plans.

Strategic plans chart the course of the organization over an indefinite future that is divided into definite time components. The plan attempts to take into account the external factors that will affect the organization such as changes in the economy, demographics, service requirements, hazards, and technology. Strategic plans have the following characteristics... the exception is:

A. Strategic plans are based on trends and expectations of the future environment, but external factors are somewhat predictable and some unforeseen events will occur.
B. Strategic planning, while relying on the best judgment of the planning committee based on analysis of the available information, must be designed to be flexible and responsive to change.
C. Strategic plans must be communicated to members of all units, and those portions of the plans that are assigned to a particular unit must be implemented through the use of operational and administrative plans.
D. Strategic plans create alternative plans that can be implemented in the event of uncontrollable circumstances. These plans attempt to prepare for the worst possible situations.

D. "Strategic plans" create alternative plans that can be implemented in the event of uncontrollable circumstances. These plans attempt to prepare for the worst possible situations. [FALSE - "Contingency plans"]

One of the responsibilities of all company officers in managing conflict occurs when people are in opposition or disagreement. The conflict management style described as: "Sharing of information openly and honestly, which usually results in the best solution to the conflict. This style is focused on the best interest of the organization, community or service area" is known as:

A. Avoiding conflict.
B. Accommodating conflict.
C. Forcing conflict.
D. Negotiating conflict.
E. Collaborating conflict.

E. Collaborating conflict.

One of the responsibilities of all company officers in managing conflict occurs when people are in opposition or disagreement. The conflict management style described as: "Appeasing other persons by passively giving in to their positions. The result is a lose – win situation because the second person's needs are met at the expense of the first person" is known as:

A. Avoiding conflict.
B. Accommodating conflict.
C. Forcing conflict.
D. Negotiating conflict.
E. Collaborating conflict.

B. Accommodating conflict.

In this information age, people tend to think of all information as being public and assessable. At the same time, in general, the public wants privacy. This conflict is apparent in government entities where the records that are generated by the organization, at taxpayers expense, are generally considered public record and open to scrutiny. At the same time, some of the records deal with the private lives of the individuals who work for the organization. Which of the following records would be considered confidential?

A. Handwritten notes.
B. Individual training records.
C. Computer data [including emails].
D. Documents, maps, and photographs.

B. Individual training records.

The company officer must be familiar with local, state, and federal laws that regulate both privacy and public access to data, reports, and records that they generate. Records that must be kept confidential include... the exception is:

A. Personal files.
B. Individual training records.
C. Medical files.
D. Emails.

D. Emails. [considered public record when created in/by municipalities or government agencies]

The company officer must be familiar with local, state, and federal laws that regulate both privacy and public access to data, reports, and records that they generate. Public records include virtually all records of agencies and jurisdictions within the state/providence. These records include... the exception is:

A. Individual training records.
B. Documents, maps, and photographs.
C. Videotapes.
D. Handwritten notes and/or letters.
E. Computer data [including emails].

A. Individual training records. [confidential]

Because the company officer may feel an obligation or commitment to guarantee that every task is completed, the decision to delegate authority to finish a task is often difficult. Challenges such as delegating tasks can be alleviated through a good training program that not only builds knowledge, skills, and abilities but also trust. _____ is when personnel are signed by their supervisors to perform duties that fall under the authority of another supervisor, the subordinates are now allowed to report to the second supervisor on matters relating to that function.

A. Unity of command.
B. Chain of command.
C. Division of labor.
D. Span of control.
E. Functional supervision.

E. Functional supervision.

While there is no absolute rule for determining how many subordinates that one person effectively can supervise, The National Incident Management System-Incident Command System [NIMS-ICS] model is based on a span-of-control ratio of one supervisor to 3 - 7 subordinates or functions with an optimum of 5. The variables that affect span-of-control in any given situation are as follows... the exception is:

A. Ability and experience of the supervisor but not the subordinates.
C. Nature of the task [including urgency, conditions under which it must be performed, complexity, rate at which it must be performed, and similarity/dissimilarity to task being performed by others].
D. Proximity of subordinates to the supervisor and each other.
E. Consequences of the mistake.
F.

A. Ability and experience of the supervisor "but not the subordinates". [FALSE]
________________________________
Ability and experience of the supervisor. &
Ability and experience of the subordinates.

The actions of a manager or supervisor can destroy employee motivation and damage relationships and unit cohesion. _____ causes the employee to be uncertain of his or her duties and contribution to the units goals and objectives.

A. Permanent employees to criticize each other.
B. Permit employees to compete in an unfriendly manner.
C. Be vague about the employee's role in the unit and organization.
D. Micromanage.

C. Be vague about the employee's role in the unit and organization.

The actions of a manager or supervisor can destroy employee motivation and damage relationships and unit cohesion. _____ can destroy the unit integrity and result in loss of unit effectiveness.

A. Permanent employees to criticize each other.
B. Permit employees to compete in an unfriendly manner.
C. Be vague about the employee's role in the unit and organization.
D. Micromanage.

B. Permit employees to compete in an unfriendly manner.

The actions of a manager or supervisor can destroy employee motivation and damage relationships and unit cohesion. _____ will destroy the unit and kill mutual respect.

A. Permanent employees to criticize each other.
B. Permit employees to compete in an unfriendly manner.
C. Be vague about the employee's role in the unit and organization.
D. Micromanage.

A. Permanent employees to criticize each other.

The most drastic change in the organization of the federal government occurred in 2002, with the creation of the Department of Homeland Security [DHS]. Agencies that were previously part of other departments were moved into DHS in an attempt to consolidate intelligence gathering efforts to prevent further acts of terrorism. One of the agencies that was moved into DHS is:

A. Federal aviation agency [FAA].
B. Nuclear regulatory commission [NRC].
C. United States fire administration [USFA].
D. Consumer Product Safety Commission [CPSC].

C. United States fire administration [USFA].

The most drastic change in the organization of the federal government occurred in 2002, with the creation of the Department of Homeland Security [DHS]. Agencies that were previously part of other departments were moved into DHS in an attempt to consolidate intelligence gathering efforts to prevent further acts of terrorism. Among the fire and emergency services agencies that were absorbed into DHS were... the exception is:

A. Federal Emergency Management Agency [FEMA].
B. United States Fire Administration [USFA].
C. National Fire Academy [NFA].
D. US Forest Service [USFS].
E. The US CoastGuard, formally part of the Treasury Department.
F. Citizen and Immigration Services & US Secret Service, formally part of the Department of Justice [DOJ].
G. Newly created Transportation Security Administration [TSA].

D. US Forest Service [USFS].

FALSE - falls under US Department of Agriculture [USDA].

Besides the HVAC system, some types of structures are equipped with built-in ventilation devices that are designed to limit the spread of fire, release heated fire gases, or control smoke and contaminated atmospheres. _____ release heat and smoke outside through vents that work automatically and are placed at the highest point of the roof or wall to limit the spread of fire within a building. Although some are now activated by smoke detectors, most still operate through the use of fusible links connected to spring-loaded or counterweighted cover assemblies. Operating sprinklers may slow or prevent the activation of _____ . If they do not open automatically, firefighters will have to open them manually with manual release mechanisms. Characteristics include "fusible links" which separate when their designated fusing temperature is reached, allowing vent covers to open; and "automatic locking devices" that ensure vent covers remain open, even gusty winds.

A. Curtain boards.
B. Atrium vents.
C. Monitors.
D. Skylights.
E. Automatic roof and wall vents.

E. Automatic roof and wall vents.

Besides the HVAC system, some types of structures are equipped with built-in ventilation devices that are designed to limit the spread of fire, release heated fire gases, or control smoke and contaminated atmospheres. _____ consist of fire-resistive half-walls that extended down from the underside of the roof to limit the horizontal spread of heat and smoke by confining them to a relatively small area directly over their sources. They also concentrate heat and smoke directly under automatic roof vents to accelerate the vents activation and may also accelerate the activation of automatic sprinklers in that area.

A. Curtain boards.
B. Atrium vents.
C. Monitors.
D. Skylights.
E. Automatic roof and wall vents.

A. Curtain boards.

[aka Draft curtains]

Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are psychological while others are generated by the organizational culture. Internal barriers are the result of psychological conflicts within the individual. Jealousy is described as:

A. Prevents effective decision-making.
B. Becomes one of the main personal barriers to making a decision.
C. Causes a lack of trust in one's own ability to make a correct decision and in others to provide accurate information to implement a decision.
D. Causes an individual to act irrationally and block the suggestions of others.

D. Causes an individual to act irrationally and block the suggestions of others. [Jealousy]
________________________________
A. Prevents effective decision-making. [Ego or self-esteem]
B. Becomes one of the main personal barriers to making a decision. [Fear]
C. Causes a lack of trust in one's own ability to make a correct decision and in others to provide accurate information to implement a decision. [Distrust]

If there is no PIO assigned or available, Company officers should follow organizational policies and procedures when being interviewed. The following guidelines are TRUE regarding company officers giving interviews... the exception is:

A. Remember that there is no such thing as "off the record". Anything said to a reporter can be reported.
B. Do not hesitate to answer forced choice questions.
C. Do not be led into answering questions beyond the officers area of knowledge or expertise.
D. Be prepared. Rehearse your interview technique, and try to improve delivery.

B. Do not hesitate to answer forced choice questions. [FALSE]

Scalar structure is well-suited for dealing with emergency situations for the following reasons... the exception is:

A. Span of control is maintained.
B. Information is decentralized for decision-making.
C. Functional chain of command is maintained.
D. Certain decision-making authority is delegated to lower levels, and communication is enhanced.

B. Information is "decentralized" for decision-making. [FALSE - "centralized"]

Company officers may be asked to assist in the development and maintenance of mutual aid plans. Additionally, mutual aid plans should be reviewed periodically to ensure that they remain current and up-to-date. Both the creation and maintenance of mutual aid agreements require personnel to work with other organizations and agencies, including their own and other governmental jurisdictions. The following statement is TRUE regarding mutual aid.

A. Mutual aid may be initiated whenever an emergency is reported along a mutual jurisdictional boundary.
B. Mutual aid normally involves payment by one jurisdiction to the other.
C. Agreement may provide for automatic aid in the event of any fire involving a given number of alarms.
D. Mutual aid is the result of a reciprocal agreement between two or more fire and emergency services organizations.

D. Mutual aid is the result of a reciprocal agreement between two or more fire and emergency services organizations. [TRUE]

Practical training evolutions [sometimes called company drills] are essential for providing safe and efficient fire and emergency services to the public. They are key elements in any fire and emergency services organizations training program. An example of simple training evolution is:

A. Hazardous materials incidents.
B. Structural collapses.
C. Forced entry through doors.
D. Natural disasters such as floods.

C. Forced entry through doors.

Practical training evolutions [sometimes called company drills] are essential for providing safe and efficient fire and emergency services to the public, they can be simple or complex. "Simple" training evolutions involve small numbers of students performing a single task that requires only a few skills. Examples include... the exception is:

A. Lifting and setting ground ladders.
B. Using portable fire extinguishers.
C. Lifting and moving patients.
D. Forcing entry through doors.
E. Taking and recording patients vital signs.
F. Deploying and advancing attack hoselines.
G. Driving and parking fire apparatus.
H. Automatic or mutual aid responses.

H. Automatic or mutual aid responses. [FALSE - Complex training]

Practical training evolutions [sometimes called company drills] are essential for providing safe and efficient fire and emergency services to the public, they can be simple or complex. "Complex" training evolutions may involve multiple units, agencies, or jurisdictions and scenarios that require high levels of cooperation and coordination. Some examples of complex scenarios are... the exception is:

A. Automatic or mutual aid responses.
B. Large area structure fires.
C. Using portable fire extinguishers.
D. Structural collapses.
E. Natural disasters such as floods, tornadoes, or earthquakes.
F. Hazardous material incidents.
G. Human caused disasters, including terrorist attacks.
H. Large area forest, wildland, or urban interface fires.
I. Transportation incidents such as aircraft crashes, bus or truck accidents, or shipboard.

C. Using portable fire extinguishers. [FALSE - Simple training]

Although labor unions exist in both public and private sectors and are responsible for negotiating member benefits with management, there are differences between the two categories. The following statements are TRUE regarding these differences... the exception is:

A. In the public sector, the fire and emergency services organization usually has a monopoly on fire protection in the community or response area.
B. The fire and emergency services are extremely vital to the public.
C. Public-sector collective-bargaining is more likely to involve the courts.
D. The law governing collective-bargaining in the private sector, is not as uniform as laws governing the public sector.

C. Public-sector collective-bargaining is more likely to involve the courts. [FALSE]

The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type I construction consists of noncombustible materials characterized by the use of steel, iron, concrete, or masonry structural elements. Type 1B requires the following fire-resistance ratings:

A. 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the floors, and 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the roofs.
B. 2 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 2 hour fire-resistance of floors, and 1 hour fire-resistance rating of roofs.
C. 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 2 hour fire-resistance rating of floors, and 1 1/2 hour fire-resistance rating of roofs.
D. 2 hour fire-resistance rating of structural frame and loadbearing walls, 1 hour fire-resistance of floors, and 1 hour fire-resistant rating of roofs.

B. 2 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 2 hour fire-resistance of floors, and 1 hour fire-resistance rating of roofs. [Type 1B]

The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type I construction consists of noncombustible materials characterized by the use of steel, iron, concrete, or masonry structural elements. Type 1A requires the following fire-resistance ratings:

A. 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the floors, and 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the roofs.
B. 2 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 2 hour fire-resistance of floors, and 1 hour fire-resistance rating of roofs.
C. 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 2 hour fire-resistance rating of floors, and 1 1/2 hour fire-resistance rating of roofs.
D. 2 hour fire-resistance rating of structural frame and loadbearing walls, 1 hour fire-resistance of floors, and 1 hour fire-resistant rating of roofs.

C. 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 2 hour fire-resistance rating of floors, and 1 1/2 hour fire-resistance rating of roofs. [Type 1A]

The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type II consists of noncombustible materials but with a reduced fire-resistance rating when compared with Type I construction. Although the term is not completely accurate, this type is often referred to as a "1-hour building", which means that bearing walls and floors have a 1 hour fire resistance rated. Subcategory Type IIA requires:

A. Requires noncombustible fire-resistant materials similar to Type I buildings insofar as the structural elements must be of steel, concrete, or masonry.
B. Requires approved noncombustible materials, but the materials used may have no assigned fire-resistance rating.
C. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure.
D. Requires a 2-hour fire-resistance rating for the structural frame and loadbearing walls; floors must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating; and roofs must have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating.

A. Requires noncombustible fire-resistant materials similar to Type I buildings insofar as the structural elements must be of steel, concrete, or masonry. [Type IIA]
________________________________
B. Requires approved noncombustible materials, but the materials used may have no assigned fire-resistance rating. [Type IIB]
C. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure. [Type VA]
D. Requires a 2-hour fire-resistance rating for the structural frame and loadbearing walls; floors must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating; and roofs must have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating. [Type IB]

The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type II consists of noncombustible materials but with a reduced fire-resistance rating when compared with Type I construction. Although the term is not completely accurate, this type is often referred to as a "1-hour building", which means that bearing walls and floors have a 1 hour fire resistance rated. Subcategory Type IIB requires:

A. Requires noncombustible fire-resistant materials similar to Type I buildings insofar as the structural elements must be of steel, concrete, or masonry.
B. Requires approved noncombustible materials, but the materials used may have no assigned fire-resistance rating.
C. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure.
D. Requires a 2-hour fire-resistance rating for the structural frame and loadbearing walls; floors must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating; and roofs must have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating.

B. Requires approved noncombustible materials, but the materials used may have no assigned fire-resistance rating. [Type IIB]
________________________________
A. Requires noncombustible fire-resistant materials similar to Type I buildings insofar as the structural elements must be of steel, concrete, or masonry. [Type IIA]
C. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure. [Type VA]
D. Requires a 2-hour fire-resistance rating for the structural frame and loadbearing walls; floors must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating; and roofs must have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating. [Type IB]

The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type III Is consists of structural elements made of any materials permitted by the code. Exterior walls must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating. Subcategory Type IIIA requires:

A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure.
B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement.
C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions.
D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements.

A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure. [Type IIIA]
________________________________
B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement. [Type IIIB]
C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions. [Type VA]
D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements. [Type VB]

The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type III Is consists of structural elements made of any materials permitted by the code. Exterior walls must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating. Subcategory Type IIIB requires:

A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure.
B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement.
C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions.
D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements.

B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement. [Type IIIB]
________________________________
A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure. [Type IIIA]
C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions. [Type VA]
D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements. [Type VB]

The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type V consists of structural elements and exterior and interior walls constructed of any materials permitted by the code [also known as wood-frame construction]. Subcategories Type VA requires:

A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure.
B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement.
C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions.
D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements.

C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions. [Type VA]
________________________________
A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure. [Type IIIA]
B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement. [Type IIIB]
D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements. [Type VB]

The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type V consists of structural elements and exterior and interior walls constructed of any materials permitted by the code [also known as wood-frame construction]. Subcategories Type VB requires:

A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure.
B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement.
C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions.
D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements.

D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements. [Type VB]
________________________________
A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure. [Type IIIA]
B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement. [Type IIIB]
C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions. [Type VA]

Type IV construction consists of structural elements of any type permitted by the code with exterior walls being constructed of noncombustible materials while interior building elements are constructed of solid or laminated wood having no concealed spaces [also known as heavy timber or HT]. Buildings must have permanent partitions, and members of the structural frame must have a minimum fire-resistance rating of at least 1-hour. Wooden columns characteristics:

A. Requires a minimum 8 x 6 inch when supporting a floor or a minimum of 8 x 8 inch when supporting roof or ceiling loads only.
B. Requires a minimum 10 x 6 inch when supporting a floor or a minimum of 10 x 10 inch when supporting roof or ceiling loads only.

C. Requires a minimum 4 x 4 inch when supporting a floor or a minimum of 6 x 4 inch when supporting roof or ceiling loads only.
D. Requires a minimum 12 x 6 inch when supporting a floor or a minimum of 8 x 8 inch when supporting roof or ceiling loads only.

A. Requires a minimum 8 x 6 inch when supporting a floor or a minimum of 8 x 8 inch when supporting roof or ceiling loads only. [HT Wooden columns]

Type IV construction consists of structural elements of any type permitted by the code with exterior walls being constructed of noncombustible materials while interior building elements are constructed of solid or laminated wood having no concealed spaces [also known as heavy timber or HT]. Buildings must have permanent partitions, and members of the structural frame must have a minimum fire-resistance rating of at least 1-hour. Floor framing [including wood beams and girders] characteristics:

A. Requires sawn or glued-laminated timber of at least 6 x 10 inches.
B. Requires sawn or glued-laminated timber of at least 10 x 6 inches.
C. Requires sawn or glued-laminated timber of at least 6 x 8 inches.
D. Requires sawn or glued-laminated timber of at least 8 x 10 inches.

A. Requires sawn or glued-laminated timber of at least 6 x 10 inches. [HT Floor framing]

Type IV construction consists of structural elements of any type permitted by the code with exterior walls being constructed of noncombustible materials while interior building elements are constructed of solid or laminated wood having no concealed spaces [also known as heavy timber or HT]. Buildings must have permanent partitions, and members of the structural frame must have a minimum fire-resistance rating of at least 1-hour. Roof-framing characteristics:

A. Requires wood-frame or glued-laminated arches or roof construction that rises from the floor with a minimum of 6 x 6 inches for entire length.
B. Requires wood-frame or glued-laminated arches or roof construction that rises from the floor with a minimum of 6 x 8 inches for the first half of its length and then no less than 6x6 inches for the top half of its length.
C. Requires wood-frame or glued-laminated arches or roof construction that rises from the floor with a minimum of 6 x 6 inches for the first half of its length and then no less than 6x8 inches for the top half of its length.
D. Requires wood-frame or glued-laminated arches or roof construction that rises from the floor with a minimum of 6 x 8 inches for the entire length.

B. Requires wood-frame or glued-laminated arches or roof construction that rises from the floor with a minimum of 6 x 8 inches for the first half of its length and then no less than 6x6 inches for the top half of its length. [HT Roof-framing]

Type IV construction consists of structural elements of any type permitted by the code with exterior walls being constructed of noncombustible materials while interior building elements are constructed of solid or laminated wood having no concealed spaces [also known as heavy timber or HT]. Buildings must have permanent partitions, and members of the structural frame must have a minimum fire-resistance rating of at least 1-hour. Roofs characteristics:

A. Requires a 3-hour fire-resistance rating.
B. Requires a 2-hour fire-resistance rating.
C. Must be constructed without concealed spaces.
D. Must be constructed with concealed spaces.